Weekly Current Affairs MCQ: 17–23 August 2026
50 Questions for UPSC & State PCS
35 UPSC-Level + 15 State PCS-Level | Answers, Explanations & Exam Takeaways
This weekly test covers the important current-affairs themes of 17–23 August 2026. Questions are designed for Prelims practice with explanations.
Part A — UPSC-Level MCQs
Q1. Southern Zonal Council
With reference to the Southern Zonal Council, consider the following statements:
- Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies.
- They were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
- They promote cooperation between the Centre and States.
- The 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting was held at Mahabalipuram.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B — 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies. They were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Their purpose is to improve cooperation between the Centre and States and provide a platform for discussing common regional problems. The 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting was held at Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu.
Exam Takeaway: Zonal Councils = Statutory Bodies → States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Q2. Zonal Councils and North-Eastern Council
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. India has six Zonal Councils created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
B. North-Eastern Council is one of the five Zonal Councils.
C. Five Zonal Councils were created under the States Reorganisation Act, while the North-Eastern Council has a separate legal basis.
D. All regional councils are constitutional bodies.
Answer: C
Explanation: India has five Zonal Councils under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The North-Eastern Council (NEC) is separate and was created under the North-Eastern Council Act, 1971. Therefore, NEC should not be counted as the sixth Zonal Council.
Exam Takeaway: 5 Zonal Councils ≠ North-Eastern Council.
Q3. High Court Bench in Ladakh
The Union Cabinet's August 2026 decision concerning Ladakh relates to:
A. Creation of a separate Supreme Court circuit
B. Establishment of a Bench of the High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh in Ladakh
C. Creation of a completely separate Ladakh High Court
D. Bringing Ladakh under Himachal Pradesh High Court
Answer: B
Explanation: The decision provides for a Bench of the existing High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh to function in Ladakh. It does not create a separate High Court. The purpose is to make access to justice easier for people living in Ladakh.
Exam Takeaway: High Court Bench in Ladakh ≠ Separate Ladakh High Court.
Q4. High Courts in India
Consider the following statements:
- Parliament can establish a common High Court for two or more States or Union Territories.
- Every Union Territory must have its own separate High Court.
- High Courts are constitutional courts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A — 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Every Union Territory does not need a separate High Court. Parliament can provide a common High Court for multiple States or Union Territories. High Courts derive their position from the Constitution.
Exam Takeaway: Revise Articles 214–231 for High Courts.
Q5. BRICS Communications Ministers' Meeting
The 12th BRICS Communications Ministers' Meeting 2026 was held in:
A. Jaipur
B. Pune
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Chennai
Answer: B — Pune
Explanation: Pune hosted the 12th BRICS Communications Ministers' Meeting under India's BRICS Chairship. The discussions focused on digital infrastructure, cybersecurity, digital skills and technological innovation.
Exam Takeaway: Pune → BRICS ICT Track 2026.
Q6. BRICS ICT Priorities
Which of the following were important priorities of the BRICS ICT Track 2026?
- Sustainable and resilient ICT ecosystems
- Cybersecurity and trustworthy ICT
- Digital skilling and capacity building
- Innovation, startups and entrepreneurship
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D — All four
Explanation: The BRICS ICT agenda covered all four areas. The broader aim is to build digital systems that are secure and resilient while ensuring that people have the skills needed to benefit from new technologies.
Exam Takeaway: Remember: Infrastructure → Security → Skills → Innovation.
Q7. Digital BRICS Forum
The Digital BRICS Forum and Expo 2026 was associated with which BRICS cooperation track?
A. Tourism
B. ICT
C. Sports
D. Finance
Answer: B — ICT
Explanation: The Digital BRICS Forum and Expo formed part of the BRICS Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) Track. It provided a platform for discussion on emerging digital technologies and resilient digital infrastructure.
Exam Takeaway: Digital BRICS Forum → ICT cooperation.
Q8. India–Brazil Cooperation
India signed an MoU on ICT cooperation during the BRICS ICT meetings with:
A. Russia
B. Brazil
C. South Africa
D. Indonesia
Answer: B — Brazil
Explanation: India and Brazil signed an ICT cooperation agreement on the sidelines of the BRICS meetings. It covers areas such as telecommunications, connectivity, cybersecurity and emerging technologies.
Exam Takeaway: Multilateral summits often also produce important bilateral agreements.
Q9. Soil Texture
Soil texture is mainly determined by the relative proportion of:
A. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
B. Sand, silt and clay
C. Humus, water and air
D. Calcium, magnesium and sulphur
Answer: B — Sand, silt and clay
Explanation: Soil texture tells us about the size of mineral particles present in soil. Sand particles are relatively large, silt particles are medium-sized and clay particles are very fine. Their proportion affects drainage and water-holding capacity.
Exam Takeaway: Soil texture = Sand + Silt + Clay.
Q10. NBSS&LUP
The National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSS&LUP) functions under:
A. ISRO
B. ICAR
C. Geological Survey of India
D. Ministry of Environment directly
Answer: B — ICAR
Explanation: NBSS&LUP is an institute of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). It works on soil surveys, soil-resource mapping and scientific land-use planning.
Exam Takeaway: NBSS&LUP → ICAR → Nagpur.
Q11. Soil and Water Retention
Which one of the following is generally correct?
A. Sandy soil retains more water than clay-rich soil.
B. Clay-rich soil generally retains more water than sandy soil.
C. Soil texture has no influence on drainage.
D. Loamy soil contains no clay particles.
Answer: B
Explanation: Clay particles are very small and have a larger surface area, so clay-rich soil generally holds more water. Sandy soil has larger particles and bigger pore spaces, so water drains through it more quickly.
Exam Takeaway: Clay → high water retention; Sand → faster drainage.
Q12. Citizenship
Which Article of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make laws relating to citizenship?
A. Article 5
B. Article 9
C. Article 11
D. Article 14
Answer: C — Article 11
Explanation: Articles 5 to 11 deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. Article 11 specifically gives Parliament the power to regulate citizenship through law.
Exam Takeaway: Citizenship → Part II → Articles 5–11 → Article 11 gives power to Parliament.
Q13. Section 6B of Citizenship Act
Section 6B of the Citizenship Act is mainly associated with:
A. Overseas Citizenship of India only
B. Special citizenship provisions introduced through the CAA framework
C. State domicile certificates
D. Election registration
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 6B provides the legal route connected with the special citizenship provisions introduced through the Citizenship Amendment Act. It should not be confused with OCI provisions or the NRC.
Exam Takeaway: CAA, NRC and OCI are different concepts.
Q14. CAA Cut-off Date
Which date is important as the entry cut-off under the Citizenship Amendment Act framework?
A. 31 December 2012
B. 31 December 2014
C. 1 January 2016
D. 15 August 2019
Answer: B — 31 December 2014
Explanation: The CAA framework uses 31 December 2014 as the relevant entry cut-off for specified communities from specified neighbouring countries, subject to other conditions laid down in law.
Exam Takeaway: Remember the combination: 6 communities + 3 countries + 31 December 2014.
Q15. PNGRB
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is:
A. A constitutional body
B. A statutory regulatory body
C. A private petroleum association
D. A NITI Aayog committee
Answer: B
Explanation: PNGRB was established under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. It regulates important parts of India's downstream petroleum and natural-gas infrastructure, including pipelines and city-gas distribution networks.
Exam Takeaway: PNGRB → Statutory body → 2006 Act.
Q16. LPG and LNG
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. LPG — Mainly methane
B. LNG — Mainly propane and butane
C. LPG — Mainly propane and butane
D. CNG — Mainly butane
Answer: C
Explanation: LPG mainly contains propane and butane. LNG is natural gas cooled into liquid form and consists mainly of methane. CNG is also mainly methane.
Exam Takeaway: LPG = Propane/Butane | LNG/CNG = mainly Methane.
Q17. India–UK Defence Cooperation
The 25th India–UK Defence Consultative Group discussions included:
- Joint exercises and training
- Defence research and development
- Defence industrial cooperation
- Indo-Pacific maritime security
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation: India–UK defence cooperation now goes beyond buying and selling defence equipment. It increasingly covers training, research, industrial partnerships and maritime-security cooperation.
Exam Takeaway: India–UK defence ties = Training + Technology + Industry + Maritime Security.
Q18. Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative
The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) was proposed by:
A. ASEAN
B. India
C. Japan
D. United Kingdom
Answer: B — India
Explanation: India proposed IPOI as an open and cooperative framework for practical maritime cooperation. It deals with issues such as maritime security, ecology, resources, disaster-risk reduction and connectivity.
Exam Takeaway: IPOI = India-led cooperative initiative, not a military alliance.
Q19. Compassionate Appointment
Which statement best describes compassionate appointment in government employment?
A. It is an absolute Fundamental Right.
B. It is a limited exception to normal recruitment to help eligible families facing hardship.
C. Government jobs automatically pass to family members.
D. Article 16 does not apply to public employment.
Answer: B
Explanation: Compassionate appointment is meant to provide immediate support to an eligible dependent family facing financial hardship after the death of a government employee. It does not create a hereditary right to a government job.
Exam Takeaway: Compassionate appointment ≠ inheritance of government employment.
Q20. Equality and Married Daughters
Judicial decisions opposing automatic exclusion of married daughters from compassionate appointment are most closely connected with:
A. Article 14
B. Article 20
C. Article 32 only
D. Article 360
Answer: A — Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws. Courts have questioned rules based only on stereotypes that a married daughter can never be dependent on her parents.
Exam Takeaway: Actual dependency should matter more than gender-based stereotypes.
Q21. PCPNDT Act
Under the PCPNDT Act, the Appropriate Authority is mainly responsible for:
A. Conducting elections
B. Regulating diagnostic facilities and enforcing provisions against illegal sex selection
C. Fixing medicine prices
D. Issuing passports
Answer: B
Explanation: The PCPNDT Act seeks to prevent sex selection and misuse of prenatal diagnostic techniques. The Appropriate Authority plays an important role in registration, inspection, investigation and enforcement.
Exam Takeaway: PCPNDT Act → Appropriate Authority → Regulation & Enforcement.
Q22. PCPNDT Offences
Under Section 27 of the PCPNDT Act, offences are:
A. Bailable and compoundable
B. Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
C. Civil offences only
D. Non-cognizable only
Answer: B
Explanation: The law treats these offences seriously. “Cognizable” means police powers are stronger than in a non-cognizable offence, while non-bailable means bail is not available as an automatic right.
Exam Takeaway: PCPNDT offences → Cognizable + Non-bailable + Non-compoundable.
Q23. Section 28 of PCPNDT Act
Section 28 of the PCPNDT Act mainly deals with:
A. Registration of hospitals
B. Cognizance of offences by courts
C. Medical education
D. Drug pricing
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 28 deals with the procedure through which a court can take cognizance of an offence under the Act. This is different from Section 27, which describes the nature of offences.
Exam Takeaway: Section 27 = Nature of offence | Section 28 = Cognizance.
Q24. HELP
HELP stands for:
A. Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy
B. High Energy Logistics Programme
C. Hydro-Economic Land Policy
D. Hydrogen Exploration and Leasing Programme
Answer: A
Explanation: HELP is India's policy framework for hydrocarbon exploration and licensing. It was introduced to simplify exploration rules and encourage greater investment.
Exam Takeaway: NELP → replaced by HELP.
Q25. Open Acreage Licensing Policy
The Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) allows:
A. Investors to identify potential exploration areas and submit expressions of interest
B. Companies to mine coal without bidding
C. Petroleum imports without customs duty
D. Refineries to operate without approval
Answer: A
Explanation: OALP gives companies greater flexibility to identify areas they consider promising for oil and gas exploration instead of waiting only for government-selected blocks.
Exam Takeaway: OALP operates under HELP.
Q26. National Data Repository
The National Data Repository for India's hydrocarbon sector is associated with:
A. Directorate General of Hydrocarbons
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. Election Commission
Answer: A
Explanation: The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons maintains exploration-related geological and geophysical information. Such data helps companies evaluate potential hydrocarbon areas.
Exam Takeaway: NDR → DGH → Hydrocarbon exploration data.
Q27. BRICS Tourism Jaipur Declaration
Which of the following were major priorities of the BRICS Tourism Jaipur Declaration 2026?
- AI and Tourism
- Sustainable and Responsible Tourism
- Tourism Skilling
- Tourism Exchanges and Travel Facilitation
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four
Answer: D
Explanation: The declaration combines new technology with sustainable tourism, skills and easier exchanges. The aim is to deepen tourism cooperation among BRICS countries rather than create a single BRICS tourism market.
Exam Takeaway: Jaipur Declaration → AI + Sustainability + Skills + Travel Facilitation.
Q28. BRICS Membership
As of the 2026 Indian BRICS Chairship, how many full members were represented in the BRICS Sports Ministers' Meeting?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Answer: D — 11
Explanation: BRICS has expanded considerably beyond its original five-member structure. The 2026 Sports Ministers' Meeting included representatives from all 11 full members.
Exam Takeaway: Do not prepare BRICS using the old five-country list alone.
Q29. Baaz Battalion
The Indian Army's first Baaz Battalion is primarily associated with:
A. Cyber warfare
B. Drone warfare and aerial capabilities
C. Naval aviation
D. Mountain artillery only
Answer: B
Explanation: The Baaz Battalion is a drone-focused Army formation. Modern drones can support surveillance, reconnaissance, target acquisition and other battlefield tasks.
Exam Takeaway: Baaz Battalion → Drones → Modern battlefield technology.
Q30. ISR
In defence terminology, ISR stands for:
A. Integrated Security Response
B. Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance
C. International Strategic Reserve
D. Internal Surveillance Regiment
Answer: B
Explanation: ISR brings together intelligence gathering, continuous monitoring and reconnaissance. Drones, satellites, aircraft and sensors can all contribute to ISR.
Exam Takeaway: ISR = Intelligence + Surveillance + Reconnaissance.
Q31. National Space Day
India observes National Space Day every year on:
A. 15 August
B. 23 August
C. 28 February
D. 5 September
Answer: B — 23 August
Explanation: The day commemorates the successful soft landing of Chandrayaan-3's Vikram lander on 23 August 2023. India became the fourth country to achieve a soft lunar landing and the first to land in the Moon's south-polar region.
Exam Takeaway: 23 August → Chandrayaan-3 → National Space Day.
Q32. India's Space Institutions
Consider the following pairs:
- ISRO — Space research and major missions
- IN-SPACe — Promotion and authorisation of non-government space activities
- NSIL — Commercialisation of Indian space capabilities
Which pairs are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All three
Answer: D
Explanation: ISRO remains India's main space research and mission agency. IN-SPACe facilitates and authorises private participation, while NSIL focuses on commercialising space products and services.
Exam Takeaway: ISRO = Research | IN-SPACe = Facilitation/Authorisation | NSIL = Commercialisation.
Q33. IRIGC-TEC
IRIGC-TEC is an institutional cooperation mechanism between:
A. India and Japan
B. India and Russia
C. India and France
D. India and Brazil
Answer: B — India and Russia
Explanation: IRIGC-TEC stands for the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation. It is an important mechanism for the civilian and economic side of India-Russia relations.
Exam Takeaway: IRIGC-TEC → India–Russia → Trade, Economy, Science, Technology & Culture.
Q34. BRICS Sports Joint Declaration
The BRICS Sports Joint Declaration 2026 was adopted at:
A. Pune
B. Jaipur
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Ahmedabad
Answer: C — Visakhapatnam
Explanation: The declaration was adopted by consensus at the BRICS Sports Ministers' Meeting held in Visakhapatnam on 23 August 2026. It focuses on cooperation through sport, technology, inclusion and people-to-people exchanges.
Exam Takeaway: Jaipur → BRICS Tourism | Visakhapatnam → BRICS Sports.
Q35. BRICS Sports Initiatives
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. Sports Technology Working Group — AI and sports science
B. Sports Manufacturing Conclave — Udaipur
C. Traditional & Indigenous Sports Demonstration Games — Ahmedabad
D. Sports Manufacturing Conclave — Visakhapatnam
Answer: D
Explanation: Visakhapatnam hosted the Sports Ministers' Meeting, but the proposed Sports Manufacturing Conclave is to be held in Udaipur. Ahmedabad is proposed to host the Traditional and Indigenous Sports Demonstration Games.
Exam Takeaway: Udaipur = Manufacturing | Ahmedabad = Indigenous Sports | Visakhapatnam = Ministers' Meeting.
Part B — State PCS-Level MCQs
Q36. Southern Zonal Council
The 31st Southern Zonal Council meeting was held at:
A. Kochi
B. Mahabalipuram
C. Hyderabad
D. Bengaluru
Answer: B — Mahabalipuram
Explanation: Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu hosted the meeting. Apart from current affairs, Mahabalipuram is also important for Art & Culture because of its Pallava-era monuments.
Exam Takeaway: Mahabalipuram → Tamil Nadu → Pallava heritage + Southern Zonal Council.
Q37. BRICS ICT Track
The BRICS ICT Track 2026 was hosted in:
A. Mumbai
B. Pune
C. Nagpur
D. Nashik
Answer: B — Pune
Explanation: Pune hosted a series of BRICS ICT-related events, including the Communications Ministers' Meeting.
Exam Takeaway: Pune → Maharashtra → BRICS ICT Track 2026.
Q38. Ladakh Judicial Development
The approved High Court Bench in Ladakh is connected with:
A. Himachal Pradesh High Court
B. Punjab and Haryana High Court
C. High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh
D. Delhi High Court
Answer: C
Explanation: Ladakh does not get a completely separate High Court through this decision. Instead, a Bench of the existing High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh is being provided.
Exam Takeaway: Ladakh → Union Territory → J&K and Ladakh High Court.
Q39. NBSS&LUP Headquarters
NBSS&LUP is headquartered at:
A. Patna
B. Nagpur
C. Lucknow
D. Hyderabad
Answer: B — Nagpur
Explanation: The ICAR-National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning is headquartered in Nagpur and works on soil-resource surveys and land-use planning.
Exam Takeaway: NBSS&LUP → Nagpur, Maharashtra.
Q40. Baaz Battalion
The Indian Army's first Baaz Battalion was raised in:
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Assam
D. Uttarakhand
Answer: A — Punjab
Explanation: The first Baaz Battalion was raised under the Army's Vajra Corps in Punjab. Its focus on drones reflects the growing importance of unmanned systems in modern warfare.
Exam Takeaway: Baaz Battalion → Punjab → Drone warfare.
Q41. Vajra Corps
Vajra Corps is also known as:
A. 9 Corps
B. 10 Corps
C. 11 Corps
D. 14 Corps
Answer: C — 11 Corps
Explanation: Vajra Corps is the Indian Army's XI Corps (11 Corps). The raising of the Baaz Battalion under it provides a current-affairs link to Army formations.
Exam Takeaway: Vajra Corps = XI Corps.
Q42. Jaipur Declaration
The BRICS Tourism Ministers' Jaipur Declaration was adopted in:
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Goa
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B — Rajasthan
Explanation: Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan, hosted the BRICS Tourism Ministers' Meeting. The declaration focuses on technology, sustainability, skills and tourism cooperation.
Exam Takeaway: Jaipur Declaration → Tourism → Rajasthan.
Q43. BRICS Sports Ministers' Meeting
The BRICS Sports Ministers' Meeting 2026 was held in which State?
A. Telangana
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Odisha
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The meeting was held in Visakhapatnam, a major coastal city of Andhra Pradesh.
Exam Takeaway: Visakhapatnam → Andhra Pradesh → BRICS Sports Meeting.
Q44. Sports Manufacturing Conclave
The proposed BRICS Sports Manufacturing Conclave is to be held in:
A. Jaipur
B. Udaipur
C. Jodhpur
D. Kota
Answer: B — Udaipur
Explanation: Udaipur has been proposed for the Sports Manufacturing Conclave. The initiative aims to connect sports with manufacturing, technology, investment and employment.
Exam Takeaway: Udaipur → BRICS Sports Manufacturing.
Q45. Indigenous Sports
Traditional and Indigenous Sports Demonstration Games are proposed to be organised in:
A. Ahmedabad
B. Surat
C. Gandhinagar
D. Rajkot
Answer: A — Ahmedabad
Explanation: Ahmedabad is proposed to host the demonstration games. The idea is to give traditional sports greater visibility while promoting cultural exchange among BRICS countries.
Exam Takeaway: Ahmedabad → Traditional & Indigenous Sports.
Q46. National Space Day
National Space Day is observed on:
A. 15 August
B. 23 August
C. 5 September
D. 28 February
Answer: B — 23 August
Explanation: It marks Chandrayaan-3's successful soft landing on the Moon on 23 August 2023.
Exam Takeaway: Do not confuse it with National Science Day — 28 February.
Q47. Chandrayaan-3
The lander of Chandrayaan-3 was named:
A. Pragyan
B. Vikram
C. Rohini
D. Aryabhata
Answer: B — Vikram
Explanation: Vikram was the lander and Pragyan was the rover. After landing, Pragyan moved onto the lunar surface to conduct scientific observations.
Exam Takeaway: Vikram = Lander | Pragyan = Rover.
Q48. India–Russia Relations
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar's August 2026 Russia visit included engagement in:
A. Moscow
B. Vladivostok only
C. Sochi only
D. Kazan only
Answer: A — Moscow
Explanation: Moscow was central to the visit, including the India-Russia institutional dialogue through IRIGC-TEC.
Exam Takeaway: 27th IRIGC-TEC → India–Russia.
Q49. Kailash Mansarovar Yatra
The Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route through Sikkim uses which pass?
A. Bomdila
B. Nathu La
C. Zoji La
D. Rohtang
Answer: B — Nathu La
Explanation: Nathu La is an important mountain pass in Sikkim on the India-China frontier. It is also used as one of the routes for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra.
Exam Takeaway: Nathu La → Sikkim → India-China border.
Q50. India's Soil Texture Map
India's first soil texture map was developed by:
A. Survey of India
B. NBSS&LUP
C. Central Water Commission
D. Forest Survey of India
Answer: B — NBSS&LUP
Explanation: ICAR-NBSS&LUP developed the soil texture map using modern geospatial and remote-sensing approaches. Such information can support better crop planning, irrigation decisions and scientific land management.
Exam Takeaway: NBSS&LUP → Soil mapping → Precision agriculture.
Quick Answer Key
1-B | 2-C | 3-B | 4-A | 5-B | 6-D | 7-B | 8-B | 9-B | 10-B
11-B | 12-C | 13-B | 14-B | 15-B | 16-C | 17-D | 18-B | 19-B | 20-A
21-B | 22-B | 23-B | 24-A | 25-A | 26-A | 27-D | 28-D | 29-B | 30-B
31-B | 32-D | 33-B | 34-C | 35-D
36-B | 37-B | 38-C | 39-B | 40-A | 41-C | 42-B | 43-B | 44-B | 45-A | 46-B | 47-B | 48-A | 49-B | 50-B
📊 Score Analysis
| Score | Performance |
|---|---|
| 43–50 | Excellent — weekly current affairs preparation is strong |
| 35–42 | Very Good — revise the Prelims traps once |
| 25–34 | Good — some topics need another revision |
| Below 25 | Read the week's important current affairs once and attempt again |
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