Daily PYQ MCQ Practice – 20 September 2026
UPSC CSE • BPSC • UPPCS + UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice
SECTION A — UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 | Environment & Ecology
Q1. With reference to Green Hydrogen, consider the following:
1. Hydrogen from natural-gas reforming combined with carbon capture is classified as green hydrogen.
2. Green hydrogen can be produced by electrolysis using renewable electricity.
3. India's National Green Hydrogen Mission targets avoidance of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse-gas emissions by 2030.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Green hydrogen is produced using renewable energy. Natural-gas reforming with CCS is normally classified as blue hydrogen, making Statement 1 the elimination point.
Q2. Consider the following statements concerning India's climate response:
I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy supports the net-zero-by-2070 pathway.
II. BUR-4 reported roughly an 8% decline in GHG emissions in 2020 compared with 2019.
III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends upon very rapid short-term emission reductions.
Which relationship among the statements is correct?
The PYQ tests the distinction between India's long-term transition pathway and the absolute claim that climate resilience necessarily requires immediate short-term achievement.
Q3. With respect to Western Hoolock Gibbons:
1. A sanctuary in Northeast India protects this ape, which is listed as Endangered.
2. It uses specialised brachiation to swing between trees.
3. It possesses a gorilla-like heavy build.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Hoolock gibbons are arboreal apes adapted to brachiation. The gorilla-like heavy-build description is incorrect.
Q4. Which of the following best explains the importance of mangroves for climate resilience?
1. They reduce tidal energy and store freshwater specifically for paddy cultivation in saline estuaries.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots convert saline coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. They can withstand tidal surges and act both as natural bio-shields and livelihood-supporting ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
Mangroves tolerate saline conditions and reduce coastal-wave and storm-surge impacts. Statements 1 and 2 misuse their ecological functions.
Q5. Regarding NIRANTAR under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change:
1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis has the Botanical Survey of India as a lead institution.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Services has the Central Zoo Authority as its lead institution.
3. Capacity Development Support has the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal as a lead institution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The Central Zoo Authority pairing in Statement 2 is the distractor.
Q6. Regarding the annual arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake, Nagaland:
1. It demonstrates the value of sustained community conservation for international migratory birds.
2. Tracking technology itself guides the birds back to their stopover sites.
3. Amur Falcons have become permanent residents of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Tracking devices help humans study migration; they do not guide birds. Amur Falcons remain long-distance migrants.
Q7. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail Orchid):
1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. It is endemic only to Northeast India.
3. It is associated with the State-flower identity of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The orchid occurs beyond Northeast India, so the word endemic makes Statement 2 incorrect. This is a classic UPSC qualifier trap.
Q8. Which was India's first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ project?
The Meghalaya-based community project became an important example of community-led forest conservation and carbon finance.
Q9. With reference to Madhav National Park:
1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar Lake is associated with the protected landscape.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Madhav National Park is in Madhya Pradesh and became India's 58th Tiger Reserve in 2025. Sakhya Sagar is part of its landscape.
Q10. At the 2025 UN Ocean Conference in France, FAO highlighted an initiative connected with sustainable aquatic-food systems. The broader concept primarily relates to:
The concept links fisheries/aquaculture with food security, ecosystem sustainability and responsible use of aquatic resources.
SECTION B — 71st BPSC Prelims 2025 | Geography & Bihar Geography
Q1. Under the Indus Waters Treaty, which of the following is NOT one of the three eastern rivers allocated to India?
Ravi, Beas and Sutlej are the eastern rivers. Indus, Jhelum and Chenab constitute the western-river group.
Q2. The Maginot Line historically existed along the frontier between:
France constructed the fortified Maginot Line primarily along its eastern frontier facing Germany.
Q3. The Strait of Hormuz connects:
It is the strategic maritime outlet from the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea.
Q4. Which of the following isthmuses has historically been known as the “Devil's Neck”?
The Kra Isthmus is the narrow land bridge linking the Malay Peninsula with mainland Southeast Asia.
Q5. “Ladang” refers to:
Ladang is a regional name for shifting cultivation in parts of Southeast Asia, comparable conceptually with Jhum cultivation.
Q6. Which is the world's largest river island?
Majuli lies in the Brahmaputra in Assam and is widely identified as the world's largest inhabited river island.
Q7. Which is the second-largest river basin in India?
After the Ganga basin, the Godavari has India's largest peninsular and second-largest overall river basin.
Q8. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet at:
From Devprayag onward their combined stream is known as the Ganga.
Q9. The two well-known volcanic islands in Indian territory are:
Both are volcanic islands of the Andaman region; Barren Island is India's only confirmed active volcano.
Q10. Most of Bihar falls under which broad climatic type?
Bihar experiences hot summers, a monsoon-dominated rainfall regime and cool winters, characteristic of humid/sub-humid subtropical monsoon conditions.
SECTION C — UPPCS Prelims 2025 | Modern India
Q1. Match the Governor-General/Viceroy with the associated measure:
A. Lord Dalhousie — 1. Permanent Settlement
B. Lord Curzon — 2. Abolition of Sati
C. Lord William Bentinck — 3. Partition of Bengal
D. Lord Cornwallis — 4. Doctrine of Lapse
Select the correct code:
Dalhousie–Doctrine of Lapse; Curzon–Partition of Bengal; Bentinck–abolition of Sati; Cornwallis–Permanent Settlement.
Q2. With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748):
1. It ended the First Carnatic War.
2. Madras was restored to the British.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The Treaty ended the War of Austrian Succession and, in India, brought the First Carnatic War to a close; Madras was returned to the British.
Q3. Which of the following sites came under British control as a consequence of the Treaty of Sugauli (1816)?
1. Kathmandu
2. Shimla
3. Ranikhet
4. Nainital
Select the correct answer:
The Anglo-Nepalese settlement transferred extensive Himalayan territories to British control. Kathmandu remained within Nepal.
UPSC Prelims Practice – 15 Questions
All 15 questions below are original and designed around recent UPSC elimination-heavy patterns.
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding an Ordinance promulgated by the President:
1. It may be promulgated when either House of Parliament is not in session.
2. It has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
3. It automatically ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved earlier.
4. The President can promulgate an Ordinance even on a subject on which Parliament has no legislative competence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
Article 123 gives an Ordinance the force of an Act, but the President's ordinance-making power is subject to Parliament's legislative competence. Statement 4 is therefore false. Elimination clue: extraordinary procedure does not create extra legislative subjects.
Q2. Consider the following:
1. Removal of the Vice-President
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill
3. Money Bill
4. Ordinary Bill on which the Houses disagree
In how many of the above can a joint sitting of Parliament be used to resolve a deadlock?
Show Answer
A joint sitting is available for certain ordinary legislative deadlocks. It is not available for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills, and Vice-Presidential removal follows a separate constitutional procedure.
Q3. If the RBI sells government securities in the open market, other things remaining unchanged:
1. Banking-system liquidity tends to decline.
2. RBI receives money from the buyers of securities.
3. Short-term interest rates may face upward pressure.
4. The operation necessarily reduces the Union Government's fiscal deficit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
An OMO sale absorbs liquidity and may tighten money-market conditions. It is a monetary operation and does not mechanically reduce the fiscal deficit.
Q4. Consider the following situations:
1. Domestic inflation is persistently higher than that of major trading partners.
2. Nominal exchange rate remains unchanged.
3. Domestic productivity increases substantially relative to competitors.
Which of the above can affect a country's real effective exchange rate?
Show Answer
REER reflects nominal exchange rates adjusted for relative prices/cost competitiveness. Even an unchanged nominal rate can coexist with a changing real rate when relative inflation changes.
Q5. Consider the following pairs:
1. Mycorrhiza — Fungi associated with plant roots
2. Lichens — Symbiotic association involving fungus and a photosynthetic partner
3. Rhizobium — Nitrogen-fixing association with many legumes
4. Methanogens — Organisms requiring oxygen-rich conditions for methane production
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Show Answer
Pairs 1–3 are correct. Methanogens are anaerobic archaea; oxygen-rich conditions are the trap.
Q6. Consider the following statements concerning ecological corridors:
1. They may facilitate gene flow between otherwise fragmented populations.
2. Every corridor necessarily increases the population of every species using it.
3. Corridors may also facilitate the spread of disease, fire or invasive species.
4. Maintaining connectivity can become important under climate-induced shifts in species ranges.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
Connectivity has benefits as well as ecological risks. The absolute word every makes Statement 2 incorrect.
Q7. Consider the following pairs:
1. Bab-el-Mandeb — Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
2. Strait of Malacca — Andaman Sea and South China Sea
3. Bosporus — Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
4. Strait of Gibraltar — Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Show Answer
Gibraltar links the Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea, not the Red Sea. Map-based elimination should solve Pair 4 immediately.
Q8. Consider the following conditions:
1. Strong vertical wind shear
2. Warm ocean surface
3. Abundant atmospheric moisture
4. Sufficient Coriolis force away from the Equator
How many of the above generally favour the development/intensification of tropical cyclones?
Show Answer
Warm water, moisture and sufficient Coriolis force favour cyclone development. Strong vertical wind shear generally disrupts organised tropical cyclones.
Q9. Consider the following practices:
1. Growing legumes in rotation
2. Leaving crop residue as soil cover
3. Repeated deep tillage regardless of soil condition
4. Diversifying crop rotations
Which of the above are broadly consistent with conservation-agriculture principles?
Show Answer
Conservation agriculture emphasises minimal soil disturbance, permanent/adequate soil cover and crop diversification. Repeated deep tillage contradicts the first principle.
Q10. Consider the following statements about semiconductor fabrication:
1. Doping can alter the electrical properties of a semiconductor.
2. Photolithography is used to transfer microscopic circuit patterns onto semiconductor material.
3. Smaller transistor dimensions automatically eliminate heat-management problems.
4. Semiconductor manufacturing requires extremely controlled contamination levels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
Doping, lithography and clean-room control are fundamental. Miniaturisation does not eliminate thermal/power-density challenges.
Q11. Regarding Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), consider the following statements:
1. “Modular” can refer to factory fabrication of components/modules followed by site assembly.
2. Every SMR necessarily uses thorium as fuel.
3. Some SMR designs incorporate passive safety features.
4. SMRs, by definition, cannot be connected to an electricity grid.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
SMR is a design/size/modularity category, not a thorium-only technology. SMRs can supply electricity to grids. The two absolute statements are traps.
Q12. Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Surat Split
2. Lucknow Pact
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Non-Cooperation Movement
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence?
Show Answer
Surat Split (1907) → Lucknow Pact (1916) → Champaran (1917) → Non-Cooperation (1920). Knowing just the anchor years 1907 and 1920 narrows the options sharply.
Q13. Consider the following pairs:
1. Vesara — Hybrid elements associated particularly with Deccan temple traditions
2. Nagara — Curvilinear shikhara over the sanctum
3. Dravida — Pyramidal vimana in developed southern temple architecture
4. Gopuram — Buddhist reliquary mound
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Show Answer
A gopuram is a monumental temple gateway, particularly prominent in South Indian temple complexes. A stupa is the Buddhist reliquary structure.
Q14. Consider the following pairs:
1. IAEA — Nuclear safeguards and peaceful nuclear cooperation
2. OPCW — Implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention
3. FATF — Global standards concerning money laundering and terrorist financing
4. IRENA — Regulation of international crude-oil prices
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Show Answer
IRENA promotes renewable-energy cooperation and transition; it does not regulate crude-oil prices.
Q15. Consider the following statements about Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI):
1. Interoperability can allow different applications to use common digital rails.
2. Open standards necessarily require all underlying software to be open-source.
3. Digital identity, payment infrastructure and consent-based data exchange can form different layers of DPI.
4. Privacy, cybersecurity and exclusion risks remain relevant even when a digital platform achieves very large scale.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Show Answer
Open standards and open-source software are not identical concepts. Statements 1, 3 and 4 capture both the architecture and governance dimensions of DPI. Elimination clue: “necessarily” in Statement 2 is too strong.
