Daily PYQ MCQ – UPSC, BPSC & UPPCS
30 Verified Previous Year Questions | 15 September 2026
UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 – Economy
Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
2. Uranium enriched to at least 60% is required for electricity production.
A. Both correct and 2 explains 1
B. Both correct but 2 does not explain 1
C. 1 correct, 2 incorrect
D. 1 incorrect, 2 correct
Show Answer
India remains heavily dependent on coal. Civil nuclear reactors do not require uranium enriched to 60%; many use low-enriched or natural uranium.
Q2. Which RBI activity is considered part of sterilization?
A. Open Market Operations
B. Payment-system oversight
C. Government debt and cash management
D. Regulation of NBFCs
Show Answer
RBI can use Open Market Operations to offset the liquidity impact of foreign-exchange intervention.
Q3. Consider the following markets:
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many are included in capital markets?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Government bonds and stocks belong to the capital market. Call money and Treasury Bills are money-market instruments.
Q4. What best describes the concept of “Small Farmer Large Field”?
A. Resettling displaced farmers on one collective farm
B. Small farmers form groups and synchronise selected farm operations
C. Farmers lease their land collectively to a company
D. A company supplies inputs to farmers under contract farming
Show Answer
Individual holdings remain separate, but farmers coordinate operations such as sowing, irrigation and harvesting.
Q5. Consider the following statements about Niger seeds:
1. Government provides MSP for Niger seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal communities use Niger seed oil for cooking.
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Show Answer
All three statements are correct. Niger is a Kharif oilseed covered under MSP and has traditional food uses.
Q6. Consider the following investments:
1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many are intangible investments?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Brand recognition, intellectual property and client lists are intangible. Inventory is a physical asset.
Q7. UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) focuses on how many of these sectors?
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Affordable housing, health care and renewable energy were included; mass rapid transport was not among the listed focus areas.
Q8. With reference to MSMEs:
1. Medium enterprises under the MSMED Act, 2006 had investment between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
2. All bank loans to MSMEs qualify under Priority Sector Lending.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Show Answer
Statement 1 uses an incorrect investment threshold. MSME lending is covered under RBI's Priority Sector framework.
Q9. In finance, the term beta refers to:
A. Simultaneous purchase and sale across platforms
B. A portfolio-balancing strategy
C. Risk arising because perfect hedging is impossible
D. A numerical measure of a stock's movement relative to the market
Show Answer
Beta measures how sensitively a security moves relative to the overall market.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Self-Help Groups:
1. The SHG programme was originally initiated by SBI.
2. Members share responsibility for a loan taken by an individual member.
3. RRBs and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Show Answer
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The SHG-Bank Linkage programme is associated primarily with NABARD rather than being initiated by SBI.
70th BPSC CCE Prelims 2024 – Science & Technology
Q1. Dalton's atomic theory successfully explained:
i. Law of conservation of mass
ii. Law of constant composition
iii. Law of radioactivity
iv. Law of multiple proportion
A. ii, iii and iv
B. i, ii and iii
C. i, ii and iv
D. i, iii and iv
Show Answer
Dalton's theory explains conservation of mass, definite proportions and multiple proportions, but not radioactivity.
Q2. Which acid is secreted in the human stomach?
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
Show Answer
Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic environment that activates pepsin and helps destroy harmful microorganisms.
Q3. Heat transfer that does not require a medium is called:
A. Radiation
B. Reflection
C. Conduction
D. Convection
Show Answer
Radiation travels through electromagnetic waves and can transfer heat through a vacuum.
Q4. Which type of rock is formed from the cooling and solidification of lava?
A. Igneous
B. Sedimentary
C. Crystal
D. Metamorphic
Show Answer
Lava cooling at the Earth's surface produces extrusive igneous rocks such as basalt.
Q5. Which are the constituents of a soda-acid fire extinguisher?
A. Conc. sulphuric acid and aluminium sulphate
B. Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate
C. Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium bicarbonate solution
D. Conc. sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate solution
Show Answer
Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to release carbon dioxide, which helps extinguish fire.
Q6. Which bacterial disease is called splenic fever?
A. Typhoid
B. Anthrax
C. Cholera
D. None of the above
Show Answer
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis and has historically been called splenic fever.
Q7. Which radiation is used to obtain relief from body aches?
A. Infra-red radiation
B. UV radiation
C. Visible radiation
D. None of these
Show Answer
Infra-red radiation produces a heating effect and is used in physiotherapy for muscular pain.
Q8. Which is the fluid part of blood?
A. WBC
B. Plasma
C. Blood platelets
D. RBC
Show Answer
Plasma is the liquid component in which RBCs, WBCs and platelets remain suspended.
Q9. What is the structural and functional unit of life?
A. Cell
B. Organ
C. Tissue
D. Organism
Show Answer
The cell is the smallest structural unit capable of performing essential life processes.
Q10. Which of the following are exothermic processes?
i. Evaporation of water
ii. Dilution of H₂SO₄
iii. Reaction of water with quick lime
iv. Sublimation of camphor
A. iii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and ii
Show Answer
Dilution of sulphuric acid and hydration of quick lime release heat. Evaporation and sublimation absorb heat.
UPPCS Prelims 2022 – Geography
Q1. Which two States were the leading producers of iron ore as per the Ministry of Mines Annual Report 2021–22?
1. Odisha
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Jharkhand
4. Karnataka
A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Show Answer
Odisha and Chhattisgarh were the leading iron-ore producing States in the referenced report.
Q2. Which river basin is the largest in area among the following?
A. Tapti
B. Narmada
C. Mahanadi
D. Cauvery
Show Answer
Among these choices, the Mahanadi has the largest drainage basin.
Q3. Assertion: Agra and Darjeeling lie at roughly the same latitude, yet Darjeeling is much colder in January.
Reason: Temperature decreases with altitude and hill stations have thinner air.
A. Assertion false, Reason true
B. Assertion true, Reason false
C. Both true but Reason does not explain Assertion
D. Both true and Reason explains Assertion
Show Answer
Darjeeling's much greater altitude explains its lower temperature despite similar latitude.
Q4. Which of the following are located in the Himalayan mountain system?
1. Cho Oyu
2. Lhotse
3. Annamalai
4. Sirumali
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Cho Oyu and Lhotse are Himalayan peaks; Annamalai and Sirumali are located in peninsular India.
Q5. With reference to India:
1. India is the sixth largest country in the world.
2. India occupies about 2.4% of the world's total area.
3. Tropic of Cancer passes roughly through the middle of India.
4. India lies completely in the tropical zone.
A. 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Show Answer
India is the seventh-largest country, and its northern part extends beyond the tropical zone.
Q6. According to India State of Forest Report 2021, which State recorded the maximum increase in forest cover during the preceding two years?
A. Kerala
B. Assam
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Andhra Pradesh registered the largest increase in forest cover in the referenced report.
Q7. Pegu Yoma region of Myanmar is important for which mineral resource?
A. Mineral oil
B. Tin
C. Copper
D. Silver
Show Answer
Pegu Yoma is historically associated with Myanmar's petroleum or mineral-oil region.
Q8. Kara Kum Desert is situated mainly in:
A. Turkmenistan
B. Tajikistan
C. Kyrgyzstan
D. Kazakhstan
Show Answer
The Kara Kum, or Karakum, Desert occupies a large part of Turkmenistan.
Q9. Match the oceans with their deepest points:
A. Pacific — 1. Sunda Trench
B. Arctic — 2. Puerto Rico Trench
C. Indian — 3. Mariana Trench
D. Atlantic — 4. Molloy Deep
A. 4-3-2-1
B. 3-2-1-4
C. 1-2-3-4
D. 3-4-1-2
Show Answer
Pacific–Mariana, Arctic–Molloy Deep, Indian–Sunda and Atlantic–Puerto Rico Trench.
Q10. Match the following hills/ranges with their States:
A. Bateshwar Hill — 1. Haryana
B. Bilari Range — 2. Manipur
C. Chin Range — 3. Bihar
D. Dhoshi Hill — 4. Karnataka
A. 2-3-1-4
B. 3-2-4-1
C. 3-4-2-1
D. 4-3-1-2
Show Answer
Bateshwar–Bihar, Bilari–Karnataka, Chin–Manipur and Dhoshi–Haryana.
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