Daily PYQ MCQ – UPSC, BPSC & UPPCS
19 September 2026 | 30 Verified Previous Year Questions
UPSC Environment • BPSC Geography • UPPCS Polity
UPSC CSE Prelims 2017 – Environment & Ecology
Q1. With reference to TRAFFIC, consider the following statements:
1. TRAFFIC functions as a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme.
2. Its mission includes ensuring that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten nature conservation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
TRAFFIC is a wildlife-trade monitoring network, not a bureau of UNEP. Its core purpose is to ensure wildlife trade does not threaten conservation.
Q2. If populations of several butterfly species decline drastically, which consequences are likely?
1. Pollination of some plants may be adversely affected.
2. Fungal infections in cultivated plants would necessarily increase drastically.
3. Populations of some wasps, spiders and birds may decline.
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Butterflies act as pollinators and also form part of food webs. Their decline can therefore affect both plants and predators.
Q3. Regarding algae-based biofuels, consider the following possible limitations:
1. They can be produced only in seas and not on land.
2. Commercial production requires significant technological expertise.
3. Economically viable large-scale facilities may create ecological and social concerns.
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Algae can also be cultivated in land-based systems. Technology, cost and large-scale environmental implications remain important constraints.
Q4. Which of the following can potentially be used for geological carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned or uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Deep underground saline formations
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
All three geological formations can serve as potential underground carbon-storage sites.
Q5. Consider the following statements about the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC):
1. It was created exclusively as an initiative of the G20 countries.
2. It focuses on short-lived climate pollutants including methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
CCAC is not a G20-only initiative. It works on reducing major short-lived climate pollutants.
Q6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is primarily used as a criterion for:
A. Measuring oxygen concentration in human blood
B. Estimating oxygen in forest ecosystems
C. Assessing organic pollution in aquatic ecosystems
D. Measuring oxygen availability at high altitude
Show Answer
Higher BOD generally indicates greater biodegradable organic pollution because microorganisms consume more dissolved oxygen.
Q7. The term “M-STrIPES” is associated with:
A. Captive breeding of wild animals
B. Management and monitoring of tiger reserves
C. India's satellite navigation system
D. Highway security
Show Answer
M-STrIPES is used for monitoring tiger populations, habitats, patrols and protection activities in tiger reserves.
Q8. In the context of the Wildlife (Protection) Act as applicable to the 2017 examination, if a tortoise species was placed in Schedule I, it implied that:
A. It received a very high level of legal protection comparable to the tiger
B. It necessarily existed only in captivity
C. It was necessarily endemic to India
D. Both B and C
Show Answer
Schedule I under the law applicable at the time represented the highest level of statutory wildlife protection.
Q9. Which is the best-known natural habitat among the following for observing gharials?
A. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
B. Chambal River
C. Pulicat Lake
D. Deepor Beel
Show Answer
The National Chambal Sanctuary and the Chambal river system are among India's most important gharial habitats.
Q10. The proposal referred to in UPSC Prelims 2017 to translocate Asiatic lions from Gujarat concerned which site?
A. Corbett National Park
B. Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Sariska National Park
Show Answer
Kuno-Palpur in Madhya Pradesh was identified for creating a second free-ranging population of Asiatic lions.
64th BPSC CCE Prelims 2018 – Geography & Bihar Geography
Q1. Which of the following countries is landlocked?
A. Belgium
B. Hungary
C. Romania
D. Ukraine
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
Hungary has no coastline; the other listed countries have access to a sea.
Q2. Which is the largest island by area among the following?
A. Borneo
B. Great Britain
C. Madagascar
D. Sumatra
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
Among these options, Borneo has the largest area.
Q3. Mediterranean-type climate does NOT prevail in:
A. Central Chile
B. Cape Town region
C. Adelaide region
D. Pampas
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
The Pampas are temperate grasslands of South America and are not a Mediterranean climatic region.
Q4. Which of the following is NOT regarded as part of the Meghalaya Plateau?
A. Bhuban Hills
B. Garo Hills
C. Khasi Hills
D. Jaintia Hills
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
The Meghalaya Plateau includes the Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hill systems.
Q5. Which of the following mountain passes lies at the highest elevation?
A. Zoji La
B. Rohtang Pass
C. Nathu La
D. Khyber Pass
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
Nathu La in Sikkim lies at a higher elevation than the other passes listed.
Q6. Karewa deposits, famous for cultivation of saffron, are mainly associated with:
A. Kashmir Himalaya
B. Garhwal Himalaya
C. Nepal Himalaya
D. Eastern Himalaya
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
Karewas are lacustrine deposits of the Kashmir Valley and are well known for saffron cultivation.
Q7. Indian States were reorganised on a major linguistic basis in which year after Independence?
A. 1947
B. 1951
C. 1956
D. 2000
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 implemented major reorganisation largely along linguistic lines.
Q8. Which State is traditionally referred to as the “Sugar Bowl of India” in this BPSC PYQ?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Bihar
D. Haryana
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
The official key accepted Uttar Pradesh for this question.
Q9. Bihar became a separate province from Odisha in:
A. 1911
B. 1912
C. 1936
D. 2000
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
Bihar and Orissa had formed a joint province earlier; Odisha was separated in 1936, leaving Bihar as a distinct province.
Q10. Most of Bihar's geographical area is covered by:
A. Mountain soil
B. Alluvial soil
C. Regur soil
D. Terai soil
E. None/More than one
Show Answer
The extensive Ganga plain makes alluvial soils dominant across most of Bihar.
UPPCS Prelims 2017 – Indian Polity & Constitution
Q1. What is the quorum required for a sitting of the Lok Sabha?
A. One-sixth of total membership
B. One-tenth of total membership
C. One-fourth of total membership
D. One-third of total membership
Show Answer
Article 100 provides that the quorum of either House is one-tenth of the total number of members unless Parliament otherwise provides.
Q2. Which of the following political features is common to both India and the United States?
1. Residuary powers vested in the Centre
2. Residuary powers vested in the States
3. The President possesses a pocket-veto power
4. The Upper House contains nominated members
Select the correct answer:
A. 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Show Answer
Pocket veto exists in both systems. India's residuary powers lie with the Union, while the U.S. Senate has no nominated members comparable to India's Rajya Sabha.
Q3. The constitutional expression “Union of States” is considered to have been influenced by:
A. American Declaration of Independence
B. Australian Constitution
C. British North America Act
D. Swiss Constitution
Show Answer
The Canadian constitutional model influenced several features of India's federation with a relatively strong Centre.
Q4. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion: The scope of judicial review in India is comparatively limited.
Reason: The Constitution of India contains several borrowed provisions.
Select the correct answer:
A. Both are true and Reason correctly explains Assertion
B. Both are true but Reason does not explain Assertion
C. Assertion is true but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Show Answer
The official solution treats the Assertion as correct and the stated Reason as incorrect for explaining the scope of judicial review.
Q5. Who among the following was a member of the Sarkaria Commission?
A. V. Shankar
B. K. Hanumanthaiah
C. Dr. S. R. Sen
D. O. V. Alagesan
Show Answer
The Commission consisted of Justice R. S. Sarkaria as Chairman, with B. Sivaraman and Dr. S. R. Sen as members.
Q6. Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion: Political parties must follow the Model Code of Conduct once elections are announced.
Reason: The Model Code of Conduct was enacted as a law by Parliament.
Select the correct answer:
A. Both are true and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both are true but Reason does not explain Assertion
C. Assertion is true but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Show Answer
The Model Code becomes operational with announcement of the election schedule, but it is not itself a law enacted by Parliament.
Q7. In which year was the Rajya Sabha first constituted?
A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1953
Show Answer
The Council of States was constituted in April 1952 and first met in May 1952.
Q8. Who is constitutionally empowered to establish an Inter-State Council?
A. Parliament
B. President
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister
Show Answer
Article 263 authorises the President to establish an Inter-State Council when public interest would be served by doing so.
Q9. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
A. Policy Cut Motion — Demand reduced to Re. 1
B. Economy Cut Motion — Demand reduced by a specified amount
C. Token Cut Motion — Demand reduced by ₹100
D. Vote on Account — Parliamentary approval of all demands for grants for the full financial year
Show Answer
A Vote on Account provides temporary authority for expenditure pending passage of the full budget; it is not approval of all grants for the entire year.
Q10. Which of the following are included in the Third Schedule of the Constitution?
1. Oath of office for a Union Minister
2. Oath to be made by the Chief Justice of India
3. Oath of office for the President of India
4. Oath to be made by a Member of Parliament
Select the correct answer:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
The President's oath is prescribed separately under Article 60 and is not contained in the Third Schedule.
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