Daily PYQ MCQ Practice
22 September 2026
UPSC CSE • BPSC • UPPCS
UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 — Environment & Ecology
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q1. With reference to planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world's oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several-fold higher oxygen than atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. I and II
B. II only
C. I and III
D. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: B. II only
Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic microorganisms account for roughly half of global oxygen production. Oceans collectively contribute more oxygen than rain forests, while dissolved oxygen in water is far below the oxygen concentration of air.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q2. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is restricted to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. II and III
Show Answer
Answer: D. II and III
The Gooty tarantula is an arachnid, not a crustacean. It has a highly restricted Indian distribution and is arboreal.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q3. Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Show Answer
Answer: C. All three
Cigarette filters contain cellulose acetate; modern lenses commonly use polymer materials; tyres contain synthetic polymers/rubber. Tyre wear is also an important source of microplastic pollution.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q4. With reference to Direct Air Capture (DAC), consider the following statements:
I. It can be used as a method of carbon sequestration.
II. Captured carbon can be used in products such as plastics and in food-processing applications.
III. In aviation, captured carbon can be combined with hydrogen to produce synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. I and II only
B. III only
C. I, II and III
D. None
Show Answer
Answer: C. I, II and III
DAC removes CO₂ directly from ambient air. The captured CO₂ may be permanently stored or utilised as a carbon feedstock, including for synthetic fuels.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q5. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is useful for removing pollutants from effluent streams and remediating industrial contaminants.
Statement II: Activated carbon has a large surface area and strong adsorption potential for heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be synthesized from carbon-rich environmental wastes.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. II and III are correct and both explain I
B. II and III are correct but only one explains I
C. Only one of II and III is correct and explains I
D. Neither II nor III is correct
Show Answer
Answer: A
Its highly porous, high-surface-area structure gives activated carbon strong adsorption capacity, while production from carbon-rich wastes also makes it an attractive remediation material.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q6. Artificial induction of rainfall for reducing air pollution makes use of:
A. Silver iodide and potassium iodide
B. Silver nitrate and potassium iodide
C. Silver iodide and potassium nitrate
D. Silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Show Answer
Answer: A
Cloud seeding can use substances such as silver iodide and potassium iodide as ice/condensation nuclei to enhance precipitation when suitable clouds exist.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces greenhouse-gas emissions.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in production.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. II and III are correct and both explain I
B. II and III are correct but only one explains I
C. Only one of II and III is correct and explains I
D. Neither II nor III is correct
Show Answer
Answer: A
Reduced virgin-resource extraction and lower production waste can both reduce energy use and associated greenhouse-gas emissions.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q8. Consider the following statements:
I. India's CO₂ emissions are less than 0.5 tonne per capita.
II. In CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. I and III only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
Show Answer
Answer: C. II and III only
The 0.5-tonne figure is far too low. India ranks behind China in the Asia-Pacific region in fuel-combustion CO₂ emissions, while electricity and heat production is the largest source.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q9. Which institution launched the “Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific”?
A. Asian Development Bank
B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
C. New Development Bank
D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
Show Answer
Answer: A. Asian Development Bank
The ADB launched the initiative to mobilise investment for nature-based solutions across Asia and the Pacific.
UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
Q10. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The cement industry accounts for more than 5% of global CO₂ emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone in cement manufacture.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. II and III are correct and both explain I
B. II and III are correct but only one explains I
C. Only one of II and III is correct and explains I
D. Neither II nor III is correct
Show Answer
Answer: B
Both II and III are correct, but calcination of limestone—releasing CO₂ while producing lime—is the relevant explanation for the industry's large process emissions. Mixing clay itself does not explain those emissions.
71st BPSC Prelims 2025 — Modern History & Bihar National Movement
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q1. Consider the following events:
1. Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
2. Treaty of Salbai
3. Battle of Wandiwash
4. Death of Tipu Sultan
Which is the correct chronological order?
A. 3–1–2–4
B. 2–3–4–1
C. 2–4–1–3
D. 3–2–1–4
Show Answer
Answer: A. 3–1–2–4
Wandiwash (1760) → Nand Kumar case (1775) → Treaty of Salbai (1782) → Tipu Sultan's death (1799).
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q2. Which statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?
1. He was elected Congress President at the Tripuri session of 1938.
2. He escaped from home internment in January 1941.
3. On 21 October 1943, he constituted the Provisional Government of India in Singapore.
A. Only 2 and 3
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: A. Only 2 and 3
Bose's Tripuri re-election was in 1939; Haripura was the 1938 session. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q3. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
A. Anugraha Narain Singh
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Shri Krishna Singh
D. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: C. Shri Krishna Singh
Shri Krishna Singh—popularly Sri Babu—headed Bihar's Congress ministry; Anugraha Narain Singh was another central figure in the provincial government.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q4. Who was the prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
A. Sahajanand Saraswati
B. Raj Kumar Shukla
C. Acharya Narendra Dev
D. Baba Ram Chandra
Show Answer
Answer: A. Sahajanand Saraswati
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929 and later became a key leader of the All India Kisan Sabha.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q5. The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed following an agreement between:
A. Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
B. Government and Mahatma Gandhi
C. Government and Rajendra Prasad
D. Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh
Show Answer
Answer: B. Government and Mahatma Gandhi
Following Gandhi's intervention in Champaran, the government constituted an inquiry committee with Gandhi as a member.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q6. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 to strengthen Home Rule League activities?
A. Annie Besant
B. B. G. Tilak
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. M. A. Ansari
Show Answer
Answer: A. Annie Besant
Annie Besant was one of the principal leaders of the Home Rule movement and visited Bihar in connection with its expansion.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q7. Which Act provided for the partition of British India into the two new Dominions of India and Pakistan?
A. Government of India Act, 1919
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Indian Independence Act, 1947
D. None of the above
Show Answer
Answer: C. Indian Independence Act, 1947
The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence Act in July 1947, establishing the two independent Dominions.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q8. Who assumed command of the Indian National Army and gave the battle cry “Chalo Delhi”?
A. Mohan Singh
B. Rash Behari Bose
C. Shah Nawaz Khan
D. Subhas Chandra Bose
Show Answer
Answer: D. Subhas Chandra Bose
Subhas Chandra Bose took leadership of the INA in Southeast Asia in 1943 and popularised “Chalo Delhi” as its mobilisation call.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q9. Which Commission generated widespread political discontent because it had no Indian member?
A. Cripps Mission
B. Welby Commission
C. Simon Commission
D. Cabinet Mission
Show Answer
Answer: C. Simon Commission
The all-British Simon Commission faced nationwide opposition and the slogan “Simon Go Back”.
71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025
Q10. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown during his ceremonial state entry into Delhi?
A. Lord Minto
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Wavell
Show Answer
Answer: C. Lord Hardinge
Lord Hardinge was attacked on 23 December 1912 during his state entry into Delhi. He survived the attack.
UPPCS Prelims — Geography
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q1. With reference to hydroelectricity in North India:
1. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
2. Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential directly because the Himalayas to their north lie within Nepal.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Only 1
Show Answer
Answer: C. Both 1 and 2
The Himalayan rivers have enormous hydropower potential because of perennial flow and steep gradients; much of the Himalayan stretch north of eastern UP and Bihar lies in Nepal.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q2. Which pairs are NOT correctly matched?
1. Budapest — Danube
2. Cologne — Rhine
3. New Orleans — Missouri
4. Hyderabad — Paleru
A. Only 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 3 and 4
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 1 and 2
Show Answer
Answer: B. Only 3 and 4
New Orleans lies on the Mississippi, while Hyderabad is situated on the Musi. Budapest–Danube and Cologne–Rhine are correct.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q3. Which Dam–River pairs are NOT correctly matched?
1. Baglihar — Chenab
2. Pandoh — Ravi
3. Srisailam — Tungabhadra
A. 1 and 2
B. Only 3
C. 2 and 3
D. Only 1
Show Answer
Answer: C. 2 and 3
Pandoh Dam is on the Beas; Srisailam Dam is on the Krishna. Baglihar is correctly matched with the Chenab.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q4. Which Coal-producing Area–State pairs are correctly matched?
1. Maolong — Arunachal Pradesh
2. Raniganj — West Bengal
3. Ramgarh — Jharkhand
4. Talcher — Odisha
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1
Show Answer
Answer: B. Only 2, 3 and 4
Raniganj, Ramgarh and Talcher are correctly matched. Maolong/Mawlong is associated with Meghalaya rather than Arunachal Pradesh.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q5. Which of the following are NOT cold ocean currents?
1. Agulhas Current
2. Brazil Current
3. Humboldt Current
4. California Current
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1 and 2
Agulhas and Brazil are warm currents. Humboldt and California are cold eastern-boundary currents.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2025
Q6. The Gobi Desert extends over which countries?
1. Mongolia
2. China
3. Russia
4. Kazakhstan
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1
Show Answer
Answer: A. Only 1 and 2
The Gobi is a major cold desert extending across southern Mongolia and northern China.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2024
Q7. Match the canals with rivers:
A. Upper Bari Doab Canal — 1. Sutlej
B. Sirhind Canal — 2. Yamuna
C. Gurgaon Canal — 3. Sutlej, Ravi, Beas
D. Indira Gandhi Canal — 4. Ravi
A. 4–1–3–2
B. 3–2–1–4
C. 4–1–2–3
D. 3–1–2–4
Show Answer
Answer: C. 4–1–2–3
Upper Bari Doab–Ravi; Sirhind–Sutlej; Gurgaon–Yamuna; Indira Gandhi Canal draws from the Sutlej–Beas river system.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2024
Q8. Match the coal resources with States:
A. Hutar — 1. Madhya Pradesh
B. Ib River — 2. Chhattisgarh
C. Tatapani–Ramkola — 3. Odisha
D. Umaria — 4. Jharkhand
A. 3–2–4–1
B. 2–1–3–4
C. 4–3–2–1
D. 4–2–3–1
Show Answer
Answer: C. 4–3–2–1
Hutar–Jharkhand; Ib River–Odisha; Tatapani-Ramkola–Chhattisgarh; Umaria–Madhya Pradesh.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2024
Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Compared with USA, China and Japan, India has the highest geographical area under cultivation.
2. India's location in the tropical monsoon region helps diversified cropping throughout the year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Only 1
D. Only 2
Show Answer
Answer: A. Both 1 and 2
India has exceptionally extensive cultivated land, while tropical/subtropical conditions and monsoonal seasonality support diverse cropping systems.
UPPCS PRELIMS 2024
Q10. Assertion (A): Red soil constitutes the second-largest soil group of India.
Reason (R): Red soil surrounds the black-soil region towards its south, east and north.
A. Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A
B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are true but R does not correctly explain A
D. A is true but R is false
Show Answer
Answer: C
Both statements are treated as correct, but the geographical distribution described in R does not explain why red soil forms India's second-largest soil group.
