July 2026 Current Affairs MCQ – Top 100 Questions
UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 • July Monthly Revision • Moderate to Hard • Answers with Explanations
Questions 1–10 • Economy, Parliament & Governance
Question 1
With reference to inflation trends reported in July 2026, consider the following statements:
1. CPI inflation averaged 3.9% during the first quarter of 2026–27.
2. Food inflation averaged 4.8% during the same quarter.
3. CPI inflation was lower than in the corresponding quarter of 2025–26.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: A
CPI inflation averaged 3.9% in April–June 2026 and food inflation 4.8%. CPI inflation was higher, not lower, than the corresponding quarter of 2025–26.
CPI inflation averaged 3.9% in April–June 2026 and food inflation 4.8%. CPI inflation was higher, not lower, than the corresponding quarter of 2025–26.
Question 2
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) primarily measures:
A. Retail prices paid exclusively by rural households
B. Changes in prices of goods at the wholesale level
C. Prices of services alone
D. Changes in household consumption expenditure
Show Answer
Answer: B
WPI tracks price changes of goods at the wholesale level. Unlike CPI, it does not primarily represent the retail consumption basket of households.
WPI tracks price changes of goods at the wholesale level. Unlike CPI, it does not primarily represent the retail consumption basket of households.
Question 3
The Monsoon Session of Parliament in 2026 commenced on:
A. 1 July
B. 10 July
C. 20 July
D. 31 July
Show Answer
Answer: C
The Monsoon Session commenced on 20 July 2026 and was scheduled to run until 13 August with 19 sittings.
The Monsoon Session commenced on 20 July 2026 and was scheduled to run until 13 August with 19 sittings.
Question 4
With reference to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for Special Fast Track Courts.
2. It strengthens penalties for specified unfair means.
3. It abolishes criminal penalties for individuals involved in examination malpractice.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: B
The amendment strengthens penalties and provides for Special Fast Track Courts. It does not abolish criminal penalties.
The amendment strengthens penalties and provides for Special Fast Track Courts. It does not abolish criminal penalties.
Question 5
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 proposed to increase the number of Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice of India, from:
A. 30 to 34
B. 31 to 35
C. 33 to 37
D. 34 to 40
Show Answer
Answer: C
The Bill proposed increasing the sanctioned strength excluding the CJI from 33 to 37 judges.
The Bill proposed increasing the sanctioned strength excluding the CJI from 33 to 37 judges.
Question 6
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026 extended relevant protections to:
A. The National Song, Vande Mataram
B. The National Calendar
C. The State Emblem only
D. All patriotic songs
Show Answer
Answer: A
The amendment extended provisions concerning prevention of obstruction or disturbance during singing to the National Song, Vande Mataram.
The amendment extended provisions concerning prevention of obstruction or disturbance during singing to the National Song, Vande Mataram.
Question 7
Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, registration after a delay exceeding two years would require an order from:
A. District Collector only
B. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
C. Gram Panchayat Secretary
D. State Election Commission
Show Answer
Answer: B
The amendment provides that registration after more than two years would require an order of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
The amendment provides that registration after more than two years would require an order of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
Question 8
The modified Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development is associated with which broader mission?
A. Skill India Mission
B. National Health Mission
C. Digital India Land Records Mission
D. National Clean Air Programme
Show Answer
Answer: A
The credit guarantee mechanism supports lending for skill-development courses under the Skill India framework.
The credit guarantee mechanism supports lending for skill-development courses under the Skill India framework.
Question 9
Under proposals concerning foreign lawyers in the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2026, their permitted practice in India is primarily related to:
A. Criminal litigation in district courts
B. Constitutional litigation before the Supreme Court
C. International commercial arbitration
D. Election petitions
Show Answer
Answer: C
The draft envisaged regulated participation of foreign lawyers and firms primarily in international commercial arbitration while restricting appearances in Indian courts and tribunals.
The draft envisaged regulated participation of foreign lawyers and firms primarily in international commercial arbitration while restricting appearances in Indian courts and tribunals.
Question 10
The proposed Election Tribunal under the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill is related to disputes concerning:
A. Lok Sabha elections
B. State Bar Council elections
C. Panchayat elections
D. University elections
Show Answer
Answer: B
The proposed tribunal concerns disputes relating to elections to State Bar Councils.
The proposed tribunal concerns disputes relating to elections to State Bar Councils.
Questions 11–20 • Rural Development, Electronics & Financial Regulation
Question 11
Under the 2026 rules relating to VB–G RAM G, wage and unemployment allowance payments are generally required to be made:
A. Only in cash
B. Through bank or post-office accounts
C. Through food coupons
D. Through Panchayat cash offices
Show Answer
Answer: B
The rules mandate account-based payments through banks or post offices. Cash payment is generally prohibited, subject to exceptional circumstances.
The rules mandate account-based payments through banks or post offices. Cash payment is generally prohibited, subject to exceptional circumstances.
Question 12
The transitional provisions under VB–G RAM G provided for continuation or transfer of which of the following from MGNREGS?
1. Existing admissible liabilities
2. Ongoing works
3. eKYC-verified job cards
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
The transition framework protects continuity by dealing with liabilities, ongoing works and verified job-card records.
The transition framework protects continuity by dealing with liabilities, ongoing works and verified job-card records.
Question 13
Semicon India Programme 2.0 is implemented under:
A. Indian Semiconductor Mission
B. National Quantum Mission
C. National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems
D. Technology Development Board
Show Answer
Answer: A
Semicon 2.0 represents the second phase of the semiconductor programme under the Indian Semiconductor Mission.
Semicon 2.0 represents the second phase of the semiconductor programme under the Indian Semiconductor Mission.
Question 14
Which of the following forms part of Semicon 2.0?
1. Chip design and intellectual-property creation
2. Semiconductor fabrication
3. Assembly, testing and packaging
4. Semiconductor workforce development
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D
Semicon 2.0 adopts a broad ecosystem approach covering design, equipment/materials, fabrication, packaging, advanced R&D and workforce development.
Semicon 2.0 adopts a broad ecosystem approach covering design, equipment/materials, fabrication, packaging, advanced R&D and workforce development.
Question 15
The approved outlay for Semicon India Programme 2.0 was:
A. ₹27,500 crore
B. ₹62,500 crore
C. ₹84,084 crore
D. ₹1,27,500 crore
Show Answer
Answer: D
The Cabinet approved Semicon 2.0 with an outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
The Cabinet approved Semicon 2.0 with an outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
Question 16
The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme approved in July 2026 primarily seeks to:
A. Replace all imported smartphones immediately
B. Increase domestic production and develop Indian brands
C. Regulate social-media platforms
D. Provide smartphones free to all households
Show Answer
Answer: B
The scheme seeks to deepen domestic manufacturing, strengthen local sourcing and support Indian mobile-phone brands.
The scheme seeks to deepen domestic manufacturing, strengthen local sourcing and support Indian mobile-phone brands.
Question 17
Under RBI's draft foreign-investment framework discussed in July 2026, an investment of 10% or more in equity is proposed to be classified as:
A. External commercial borrowing
B. Foreign Direct Investment
C. Overseas Direct Investment
D. Sovereign debt
Show Answer
Answer: B
The draft uses the 10% threshold to distinguish FDI from foreign portfolio investment in relevant entities.
The draft uses the 10% threshold to distinguish FDI from foreign portfolio investment in relevant entities.
Question 18
With reference to RBI and DPIIT under the proposed foreign-investment rules, consider the following:
1. RBI would continue to administer operational aspects such as reporting and payment modes.
2. DPIIT would deal with interpretation of foreign-investment policy.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Answer: C
The draft retains RBI's operational role while recognising DPIIT's role in policy interpretation and clarification.
The draft retains RBI's operational role while recognising DPIIT's role in policy interpretation and clarification.
Question 19
SEBI's July 2026 consultation relating to portfolio managers proposed a separate framework for portfolios investing only in:
A. Government bonds
B. Mutual funds
C. Gold
D. Cryptocurrency
Show Answer
Answer: B
SEBI proposed a specialised mutual-fund-only portfolio-management framework with relaxed entry requirements.
SEBI proposed a specialised mutual-fund-only portfolio-management framework with relaxed entry requirements.
Question 20
The Securities Markets Code, 2025 seeks to consolidate which of the following?
1. SEBI Act, 1992
2. Depositories Act, 1996
3. Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
The proposed Code seeks to consolidate these three major securities-market laws.
The proposed Code seeks to consolidate these three major securities-market laws.
Questions 21–30 • Transport, Agriculture & Food Security
Question 21
In India, Major Ports are administered primarily by:
A. Gram Panchayats
B. State governments exclusively
C. Central government framework
D. Finance Commission
Show Answer
Answer: C
Major Ports fall under the Union framework, while non-major ports are generally administered by states.
Major Ports fall under the Union framework, while non-major ports are generally administered by states.
Question 22
The revised policy on waterfront and associated land at Major Ports permits renewal of certain agreements with existing entities for up to:
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 30 years
D. 99 years
Show Answer
Answer: C
The revised framework permits renewal or extension for up to 30 years under prescribed conditions.
The revised framework permits renewal or extension for up to 30 years under prescribed conditions.
Question 23
Under railway reforms announced in July 2026, contractors with pending litigation exceeding what proportion of their net worth may become ineligible for tenders?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
Show Answer
Answer: C
The revised eligibility provision uses a 50% of net-worth threshold for pending litigation.
The revised eligibility provision uses a 50% of net-worth threshold for pending litigation.
Question 24
RDSO, often seen in railway-related current affairs, stands for:
A. Railway Development and Safety Office
B. Research Designs and Standards Organisation
C. Regional Directorate of Station Operations
D. Rail Data and Signalling Organisation
Show Answer
Answer: B
RDSO is the Research Designs and Standards Organisation under the Ministry of Railways.
RDSO is the Research Designs and Standards Organisation under the Ministry of Railways.
Question 25
Specially designed standardised containers were proposed for railway transportation of fly ash mainly to:
A. Increase the moisture content of fly ash
B. Reduce pollution during transportation
C. Convert fly ash into coal
D. Eliminate the need for railways
Show Answer
Answer: B
Covered, standardised containers can reduce dust and pollution while improving handling and unloading.
Covered, standardised containers can reduce dust and pollution while improving handling and unloading.
Question 26
The National Investment Policy for Urea-2026 seeks primarily to promote:
A. Import of finished urea only
B. Establishment of new domestic urea manufacturing units
C. Complete replacement of urea with potash
D. Closure of gas-based fertilizer plants
Show Answer
Answer: B
The policy seeks new investment in domestic urea capacity, including gas-based production.
The policy seeks new investment in domestic urea capacity, including gas-based production.
Question 27
Under PM-KISAN, an eligible beneficiary family receives:
A. ₹6,000 annually in three equal instalments
B. ₹12,000 annually in one instalment
C. ₹6,000 monthly
D. ₹10,000 annually in two instalments
Show Answer
Answer: A
PM-KISAN provides ₹6,000 per year through Direct Benefit Transfer in three equal instalments.
PM-KISAN provides ₹6,000 per year through Direct Benefit Transfer in three equal instalments.
Question 28
In July 2026, continuation of PM-KISAN was approved up to:
A. 2027–28
B. 2028–29
C. 2029–30
D. 2030–31
Show Answer
Answer: D
The Cabinet approved continuation from 2026–27 through 2030–31.
The Cabinet approved continuation from 2026–27 through 2030–31.
Question 29
A parliamentary committee examining sugar content in packaged food recommended consideration of scientific thresholds associated with:
A. WHO and ICMR
B. IMF and WTO
C. FAO and ICAO only
D. IPCC and UNEP only
Show Answer
Answer: A
The recommendations referred to scientifically informed thresholds including those of WHO and ICMR.
The recommendations referred to scientifically informed thresholds including those of WHO and ICMR.
Question 30
The revised rice-quality norms under PMGKAY reduced the permissible broken-grain content in raw rice from 25% to:
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 5%
Show Answer
Answer: C
The revised norm reduces broken grains in raw rice from 25% to 10%; the norm for parboiled rice is also tightened.
The revised norm reduces broken grains in raw rice from 25% to 10%; the norm for parboiled rice is also tightened.
Questions 31–40 • Environment, Energy, Coal & Steel
Question 31
Prior Environmental Clearance for specified projects in India is principally linked with:
A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and EIA Notification, 2006
B. Forest Rights Act alone
C. Biological Diversity Act alone
D. Wildlife Protection Act alone
Show Answer
Answer: A
The prior-EC framework for listed projects operates under the Environment (Protection) Act and EIA Notification, 2006.
The prior-EC framework for listed projects operates under the Environment (Protection) Act and EIA Notification, 2006.
Question 32
Regarding retrospective Environmental Clearance, the Supreme Court position discussed in July 2026 indicated that:
A. Prior EC has been completely abolished
B. Retrospective EC can routinely replace prior EC
C. Prior EC remains the rule and retrospective clearance is exceptional
D. State governments alone can exempt every project
Show Answer
Answer: C
The Court reaffirmed prior clearance as the norm and treated retrospective clearance as a narrowly limited exception.
The Court reaffirmed prior clearance as the norm and treated retrospective clearance as a narrowly limited exception.
Question 33
Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana is associated with:
A. Rooftop wind turbines
B. Floating solar photovoltaic projects
C. Nuclear fusion reactors
D. Tidal barrages only
Show Answer
Answer: B
The scheme supports floating solar PV projects with associated energy-storage capacity.
The scheme supports floating solar PV projects with associated energy-storage capacity.
Question 34
The targeted floating-solar capacity under PM Surya Sarovar Yojana is:
A. 500 MW
B. 1,000 MW
C. 5,000 MW
D. 50,000 MW
Show Answer
Answer: C
The scheme targets development of 5,000 MW of floating solar photovoltaic capacity.
The scheme targets development of 5,000 MW of floating solar photovoltaic capacity.
Question 35
Energy-storage systems under PM Surya Sarovar projects are required to have a minimum storage duration of:
A. 30 minutes
B. One hour
C. Two hours
D. Twelve hours
Show Answer
Answer: C
The scheme provides for co-located storage with a minimum two-hour storage capacity.
The scheme provides for co-located storage with a minimum two-hour storage capacity.
Question 36
“Samudra Manthan”, approved in July 2026, refers to:
A. Deep Ocean biodiversity census only
B. National Offshore Exploration Scheme
C. Coastal tourism programme
D. Naval shipbuilding mission
Show Answer
Answer: B
Samudra Manthan is the National Offshore Exploration Scheme aimed at strengthening domestic oil and gas exploration.
Samudra Manthan is the National Offshore Exploration Scheme aimed at strengthening domestic oil and gas exploration.
Question 37
In petroleum exploration, “seismic data” are principally used to:
A. Measure agricultural soil fertility
B. Study subsurface geological structures
C. Detect atmospheric ozone
D. Measure river salinity only
Show Answer
Answer: B
Seismic surveys help map subsurface geological structures and identify potential hydrocarbon-bearing formations.
Seismic surveys help map subsurface geological structures and identify potential hydrocarbon-bearing formations.
Question 38
Scientific drilling under Samudra Manthan primarily refers to drilling exploratory wells to:
A. Dispose industrial waste
B. Obtain geological information about the subsurface
C. Construct offshore hotels
D. Extract only groundwater
Show Answer
Answer: B
Scientific drilling is intended to obtain subsurface geological information, particularly in frontier basins.
Scientific drilling is intended to obtain subsurface geological information, particularly in frontier basins.
Question 39
Coal beneficiation generally seeks to:
A. Increase impurities in coal
B. Improve coal quality by removing unwanted material
C. Convert coal directly into uranium
D. Eliminate all carbon from coal
Show Answer
Answer: B
Beneficiation or washing removes impurities such as ash-bearing material, improving the usable quality of coal.
Beneficiation or washing removes impurities such as ash-bearing material, improving the usable quality of coal.
Question 40
Pithead coal washeries can help reduce:
1. Transport of unwanted material
2. Logistics costs
3. Associated transport emissions
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
Washing coal close to the mine reduces movement of unusable material and can lower transport costs and emissions.
Washing coal close to the mine reduces movement of unusable material and can lower transport costs and emissions.
Questions 41–50 • Health, Sports & Defence
Question 41
The Draft National Pharmacy Commission Bill, 2026 proposes to replace:
A. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
B. Pharmacy Act, 1948
C. National Medical Commission Act, 2019
D. Clinical Establishments Act, 2010
Show Answer
Answer: B
The draft proposes a National Pharmacy Commission and repeal of the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
The draft proposes a National Pharmacy Commission and repeal of the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
Question 42
Which proposed body would maintain the National Register of pharmacy professionals?
A. Pharmacy Ethics and Registration Board
B. Finance Commission
C. Central Pollution Control Board
D. National Testing Agency
Show Answer
Answer: A
The Pharmacy Ethics and Registration Board is proposed to maintain the National Register and address professional complaints.
The Pharmacy Ethics and Registration Board is proposed to maintain the National Register and address professional complaints.
Question 43
The proposed National Exit Test for pharmacy may be relevant for:
1. Licence to practise pharmacy
2. Enrolment in professional registers
3. Admission to postgraduate pharmacy education
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
The draft connects the common exit examination with all three purposes.
The draft connects the common exit examination with all three purposes.
Question 44
Under amendments to the Drugs Rules, formulations containing more than 12% ethyl alcohol by volume in quantities exceeding 30 ml would:
A. Remain completely exempt from licensing
B. Require relevant manufacturing and sale licences
C. Automatically be classified as food products
D. Be exempt from prescription requirements
Show Answer
Answer: B
The amendment removes licensing exemptions for specified high-alcohol formulations above the prescribed threshold.
The amendment removes licensing exemptions for specified high-alcohol formulations above the prescribed threshold.
Question 45
Which of the following was introduced for Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and homoeopathic drug regulation?
A. QR-code based ingredient information in specified cases
B. Complete removal of quality-control standards
C. Ban on scientific shelf-life data
D. Mandatory annual cancellation of every manufacturing licence
Show Answer
Answer: A
The amendments include standardised product codes and QR-code labelling where ingredient information exceeds available package space.
The amendments include standardised product codes and QR-code labelling where ingredient information exceeds available package space.
Question 46
Which airport was added as a notified port for drug imports in the July 2026 amendments?
A. Navi Mumbai Airport
B. Leh Airport
C. Agatti Airport
D. Jaisalmer Airport
Show Answer
Answer: A
Navi Mumbai Airport was added to the notified entry points permitted for drug imports.
Navi Mumbai Airport was added to the notified entry points permitted for drug imports.
Question 47
Draft regulations for establishment of new medical institutions proposed that infrastructure and statutory requirements should be:
A. Completed only after the first graduating batch
B. Fully complete at the time of application
C. Optional for private institutions
D. Replaced entirely by online facilities
Show Answer
Answer: B
The draft seeks to prevent reliance on temporary or work-in-progress infrastructure at the application stage.
The draft seeks to prevent reliance on temporary or work-in-progress infrastructure at the application stage.
Question 48
Which of the following was introduced as a school-level component under the revamped Khelo India framework?
A. Feeder Schools
B. Industrial Training Zones
C. Green Skill Centres
D. Panchayat Finance Schools
Show Answer
Answer: A
Feeder Schools and Utkrishta Vidyalayas form part of the strengthened school-level talent structure.
Feeder Schools and Utkrishta Vidyalayas form part of the strengthened school-level talent structure.
Question 49
National Anti-Doping Rules, 2026 were notified under:
A. National Sports University Act
B. National Anti-Doping Act, 2022
C. Olympic Charter directly
D. Indian Penal Code
Show Answer
Answer: B
The 2026 rules operate under India's National Anti-Doping Act, 2022.
The 2026 rules operate under India's National Anti-Doping Act, 2022.
Question 50
In defence procurement, an “offset obligation” generally requires a foreign vendor to:
A. Donate weapons free of cost
B. Undertake specified purchases, exports, investment or technology-linked activity in the buyer country
C. Transfer ownership of the foreign company
D. Pay all defence salaries
Show Answer
Answer: B
Offsets seek to channel part of major defence procurement value back into the domestic economy through purchases, investment, exports or technology-related activity.
Offsets seek to channel part of major defence procurement value back into the domestic economy through purchases, investment, exports or technology-related activity.
Questions 51–60 • International Relations
Question 51
India and Japan's July 2026 economic-security cooperation covered which sectors?
1. Semiconductors
2. Critical minerals
3. Artificial Intelligence
4. Clean energy
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D
The joint economic-security agenda covered semiconductors, critical minerals, AI, clean energy and pharmaceuticals.
The joint economic-security agenda covered semiconductors, critical minerals, AI, clean energy and pharmaceuticals.
Question 52
India–Japan cooperation announced in July 2026 included establishment of plants related to:
A. Biogas and organic fertiliser
B. Uranium enrichment
C. Coal liquefaction only
D. Deep-sea mining only
Show Answer
Answer: A
One cooperation area involved biogas and organic fertiliser plants while leveraging India's dairy cooperative network.
One cooperation area involved biogas and organic fertiliser plants while leveraging India's dairy cooperative network.
Question 53
The India–Japan agreements also covered cooperation relating to:
A. Large Language Models and AI frameworks
B. Replacement of the United Nations
C. Abolition of maritime transport
D. Creation of a common currency
Show Answer
Answer: A
Digital cooperation included development of LLMs, AI frameworks and internet-security/governance cooperation.
Digital cooperation included development of LLMs, AI frameworks and internet-security/governance cooperation.
Question 54
India and Indonesia extended cooperation concerning:
1. Peaceful uses of outer space
2. Maritime security
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Answer: C
Both peaceful space cooperation and maritime-security cooperation were extended.
Both peaceful space cooperation and maritime-security cooperation were extended.
Question 55
A July 2026 India–Indonesia cooperation initiative concerned development of:
A. Rare-earth magnets
B. Only thermal coal mines
C. Arctic nuclear submarines
D. Euro-denominated currency
Show Answer
Answer: A
Rare-earth magnet development was among the cooperation areas, alongside minerals and steel supply chains.
Rare-earth magnet development was among the cooperation areas, alongside minerals and steel supply chains.
Question 56
BrahMos, referred to in India–Indonesia defence cooperation, is best described as:
A. Ballistic missile defence satellite
B. Supersonic cruise missile system
C. Main battle tank
D. Anti-submarine helicopter
Show Answer
Answer: B
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile system developed through India–Russia collaboration.
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile system developed through India–Russia collaboration.
Question 57
India–Australia joint declarations in July 2026 included cooperation on:
1. Maritime security and defence
2. Energy security
3. Cyber and critical technologies
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
All three formed part of the bilateral outcomes, together with cooperation in areas such as sports.
All three formed part of the bilateral outcomes, together with cooperation in areas such as sports.
Question 58
An India–Australia MoU announced in July 2026 concerned skill development in:
A. Mining operations
B. Classical dance only
C. Inland fishing only
D. Plantation agriculture only
Show Answer
Answer: A
Mining-operation skill development was one of the bilateral MoUs.
Mining-operation skill development was one of the bilateral MoUs.
Question 59
India–New Zealand agreements in July 2026 included:
A. Hydrographic data sharing
B. A common central bank
C. Merger of defence forces
D. Customs union covering all goods
Show Answer
Answer: A
Hydrographic data sharing and defence logistics support were among the maritime-security outcomes.
Hydrographic data sharing and defence logistics support were among the maritime-security outcomes.
Question 60
The National Maritime Heritage Complex referred to in India–New Zealand cooperation is being developed at:
A. Lothal, Gujarat
B. Dholavira, Gujarat
C. Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh
D. Hampi, Karnataka
Show Answer
Answer: A
The National Maritime Heritage Complex is being developed at Lothal, an important Harappan site in Gujarat.
The National Maritime Heritage Complex is being developed at Lothal, an important Harappan site in Gujarat.
Questions 61–70 • Agriculture, AI, Ecology & Conservation
Question 61
District Agriculture Contingency Plans updated during El Niño preparedness in July 2026 were prepared with a key role for:
A. ICAR–CRIDA
B. Election Commission of India
C. Archaeological Survey of India
D. National Highways Authority of India
Show Answer
Answer: A
ICAR's Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture plays a central role in district agricultural contingency planning.
ICAR's Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture plays a central role in district agricultural contingency planning.
Question 62
El Niño is associated with anomalous warming of surface waters in:
A. Central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean
B. Arctic Ocean only
C. Mediterranean Sea
D. Bay of Bengal only
Show Answer
Answer: A
El Niño refers to abnormal warming in the central/eastern equatorial Pacific and can influence atmospheric circulation globally.
El Niño refers to abnormal warming in the central/eastern equatorial Pacific and can influence atmospheric circulation globally.
Question 63
The National Pest Surveillance System uses AI and Machine Learning primarily to:
A. Detect crop pest infestations
B. Conduct population census
C. Forecast stock-market prices
D. Regulate telecom spectrum
Show Answer
Answer: A
NPSS uses image-based and digital tools to aid early detection and management of crop pests.
NPSS uses image-based and digital tools to aid early detection and management of crop pests.
Question 64
Under the Digital Agriculture Mission, which technologies may be used?
1. Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
2. Blockchain
3. Internet of Things
4. Robotics
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D
The Mission supports multiple emerging digital technologies for agriculture and governance.
The Mission supports multiple emerging digital technologies for agriculture and governance.
Question 65
The Soil Health Card Scheme is principally intended to provide farmers information regarding:
A. Nutrient status of their soil
B. Ownership of mineral mines
C. Voting behaviour
D. Ocean currents
Show Answer
Answer: A
Soil Health Cards provide information on soil nutrient status and support balanced fertiliser recommendations.
Soil Health Cards provide information on soil nutrient status and support balanced fertiliser recommendations.
Question 66
Farmer Producer Organisations are intended primarily to:
A. Aggregate farmers to improve access to inputs, markets and services
B. Replace State legislatures
C. Regulate monetary policy
D. Control wildlife reserves
Show Answer
Answer: A
FPOs enable producers, especially small farmers, to aggregate economic activity and improve bargaining and market access.
FPOs enable producers, especially small farmers, to aggregate economic activity and improve bargaining and market access.
Question 67
e-NAM is best described as:
A. A pan-India electronic agricultural trading platform
B. National defence procurement portal
C. Electronic court-filing system
D. Satellite-navigation programme
Show Answer
Answer: A
The National Agriculture Market integrates agricultural markets through an electronic trading platform.
The National Agriculture Market integrates agricultural markets through an electronic trading platform.
Question 68
Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is associated with:
A. Food processing infrastructure and value addition
B. Inter-state river tribunals
C. Coastal policing
D. Judicial appointments
Show Answer
Answer: A
PM Kisan SAMPADA supports modern food-processing and preservation infrastructure and value addition.
PM Kisan SAMPADA supports modern food-processing and preservation infrastructure and value addition.
Question 69
India is home to approximately what share of the world's wild tiger population, according to the conservation update highlighted in July 2026?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. Nearly 70%
Show Answer
Answer: D
India accounts for nearly 70% of the world's wild tiger population.
India accounts for nearly 70% of the world's wild tiger population.
Question 70
Global Tiger Day is observed annually on:
A. 5 June
B. 22 May
C. 29 July
D. 2 February
Show Answer
Answer: C
International or Global Tiger Day is observed on 29 July to promote tiger conservation awareness.
International or Global Tiger Day is observed on 29 July to promote tiger conservation awareness.
Questions 71–80 • Markets, Insurance, Examination Reform & Skill Development
Question 71
Under the draft foreign-investment framework, foreign investment below 10% is generally treated as:
A. FPI
B. ECB
C. Sovereign grant
D. Masala Bond
Show Answer
Answer: A
Investments below the proposed 10% threshold are generally designated as foreign portfolio investment.
Investments below the proposed 10% threshold are generally designated as foreign portfolio investment.
Question 72
SAT, in the context of India's securities market, stands for:
A. Securities Appellate Tribunal
B. State Arbitration Tribunal
C. Securities Audit Trust
D. Strategic Assets Tribunal
Show Answer
Answer: A
SAT hears appeals against specified orders of securities-market regulators and adjudicating authorities.
SAT hears appeals against specified orders of securities-market regulators and adjudicating authorities.
Question 73
Market Infrastructure Institutions include:
1. Stock exchanges
2. Clearing corporations
3. Depositories
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
These entities form core infrastructure for securities trading, clearing, settlement and holding.
These entities form core infrastructure for securities trading, clearing, settlement and holding.
Question 74
IRDAI regulations require re-insurers to appoint separate actuaries for:
A. Rural and urban districts
B. Life and general reinsurance
C. Public and private banks
D. Motor and crop insurance only
Show Answer
Answer: B
The regulations distinguish actuarial responsibility for life and general reinsurance businesses.
The regulations distinguish actuarial responsibility for life and general reinsurance businesses.
Question 75
The Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund may support:
1. Policyholder awareness
2. Grievance-redress support
3. Unclaimed amount recovery infrastructure
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
The Fund has a consumer-protection orientation covering education, grievances, unclaimed amounts and technology-based services.
The Fund has a consumer-protection orientation covering education, grievances, unclaimed amounts and technology-based services.
Question 76
The 2026 amendment to the Public Examinations law proposed debarment of an offending service provider for:
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Four years
D. Eight years
Show Answer
Answer: D
The amendment enhanced the debarment period from four years to eight years.
The amendment enhanced the debarment period from four years to eight years.
Question 77
Under the amended public-examination framework, investigation of an offence is intended to be completed within:
A. 15 days
B. Two months
C. Six months
D. Two years
Show Answer
Answer: B
The amendment specifies a two-month timeline for completing investigation.
The amendment specifies a two-month timeline for completing investigation.
Question 78
Special Fast Track Courts under the amended public-examination framework are to be designated from among:
A. Courts of Session
B. Gram Nyayalayas only
C. Supreme Court benches
D. Consumer Commissions
Show Answer
Answer: A
States and UTs are required to designate Courts of Session as Special Fast Track Courts for relevant offences.
States and UTs are required to designate Courts of Session as Special Fast Track Courts for relevant offences.
Question 79
Under the modified Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Skill Development, guarantee coverage is:
A. Uniformly 100% for every loan
B. Tiered according to the loan slab
C. Available only to foreign students
D. Limited to university professors
Show Answer
Answer: B
The modified scheme introduces differentiated guarantee coverage depending on loan size.
The modified scheme introduces differentiated guarantee coverage depending on loan size.
Question 80
The modified skill-development credit guarantee scheme expanded eligibility to certain non-NSQF courses offered through:
A. Skill India Digital Hub
B. DigiYatra
C. PM GatiShakti portal
D. National Judicial Data Grid
Show Answer
Answer: A
The scheme extends coverage to specified non-NSQF-aligned courses run by entities on the Skill India Digital Hub.
The scheme extends coverage to specified non-NSQF-aligned courses run by entities on the Skill India Digital Hub.
Questions 81–90 • Food Security, Environment & Industrial Policy
Question 81
Under PMGKAY, free foodgrains are provided to beneficiaries under:
1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana
2. Priority Households
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Answer: C
The National Food Security framework covers AAY and Priority Household beneficiaries.
The National Food Security framework covers AAY and Priority Household beneficiaries.
Question 82
“One Nation One Ration Card” is principally associated with:
A. Portability of food-security benefits
B. Universal crop insurance
C. National tax assessment
D. Railway freight subsidies
Show Answer
Answer: A
It enables eligible beneficiaries to access subsidised foodgrains across participating locations, improving portability for migrants.
It enables eligible beneficiaries to access subsidised foodgrains across participating locations, improving portability for migrants.
Question 83
SMART-PDS is associated with modernisation of:
A. Public Distribution System
B. Passport offices
C. Securities markets
D. National highways
Show Answer
Answer: A
SMART-PDS focuses on technological modernisation and integration of the Public Distribution System.
SMART-PDS focuses on technological modernisation and integration of the Public Distribution System.
Question 84
Which constitutional Articles were referred to in the Supreme Court's criticism of an unlimited retrospective-EC mechanism?
A. Articles 14 and 21
B. Articles 110 and 112
C. Articles 280 and 281
D. Articles 324 and 326
Show Answer
Answer: A
The Court linked the issue to constitutional guarantees under Articles 14 and 21.
The Court linked the issue to constitutional guarantees under Articles 14 and 21.
Question 85
Compared with ground-mounted solar plants, floating solar can potentially:
1. Reduce land requirement
2. Reduce evaporation from water bodies in some conditions
3. Generate electricity from solar radiation
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
Floating PV uses water surfaces instead of large land parcels and may also reduce surface evaporation while generating solar electricity.
Floating PV uses water surfaces instead of large land parcels and may also reduce surface evaporation while generating solar electricity.
Question 86
Deepwater and ultra-deepwater exploration is particularly relevant to:
A. Offshore hydrocarbon exploration
B. Desert afforestation only
C. Himalayan glacier mapping only
D. Inland groundwater irrigation only
Show Answer
Answer: A
These terms commonly refer to offshore oil-and-gas exploration at progressively greater water depths.
These terms commonly refer to offshore oil-and-gas exploration at progressively greater water depths.
Question 87
Coking coal is particularly important for:
A. Conventional iron and steel production
B. Solar PV manufacturing only
C. Irrigation pumping only
D. Pharmaceutical production only
Show Answer
Answer: A
Coking coal is a key input for coke used in the blast-furnace route of iron and steel production.
Coking coal is a key input for coke used in the blast-furnace route of iron and steel production.
Question 88
The parliamentary roadmap for “Made in India” steel emphasised:
1. Specialty steel production
2. Lower logistics costs
3. Raw-material security
4. Indigenous technology
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D
All four were among the committee's major areas of emphasis for self-reliance in steel.
All four were among the committee's major areas of emphasis for self-reliance in steel.
Question 89
Front-of-pack nutrition labelling is intended primarily to:
A. Make key nutritional information more visible to consumers
B. Replace food-safety regulation completely
C. Eliminate ingredient lists
D. Regulate securities trading
Show Answer
Answer: A
Front-of-pack systems are intended to make important nutritional information easier for consumers to notice and interpret.
Front-of-pack systems are intended to make important nutritional information easier for consumers to notice and interpret.
Question 90
FSSAI functions under which Union Ministry?
A. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B. Ministry of External Affairs
C. Ministry of Defence
D. Ministry of Coal
Show Answer
Answer: A
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Questions 91–100 • Science, Technology & High-Value Revision
Question 91
AI-enabled biotechnology research supported by the government includes:
1. Computational biology
2. Genomics
3. Medical imaging
4. Biological data science
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D
AI is increasingly being integrated across computational biology, genomics, imaging, biomanufacturing and biological-data analysis.
AI is increasingly being integrated across computational biology, genomics, imaging, biomanufacturing and biological-data analysis.
Question 92
BTISNet, seen in the context of biotechnology research, is associated mainly with:
A. Bioinformatics
B. Highway tolling
C. Coal auctions
D. Electoral rolls
Show Answer
Answer: A
BTISNet is linked to bioinformatics infrastructure and computational biology research.
BTISNet is linked to bioinformatics infrastructure and computational biology research.
Question 93
Under the National Anti-Doping Rules, testing laboratories:
A. May freely provide athletes techniques to evade detection
B. Cannot accept samples directly from athletes
C. Need not follow international laboratory standards
D. Are operated only by private sports clubs
Show Answer
Answer: B
The rules prohibit labs from directly accepting samples from athletes and require consistent international testing standards.
The rules prohibit labs from directly accepting samples from athletes and require consistent international testing standards.
Question 94
Under the 2026 anti-doping rules, “protected persons” may include certain:
A. Minor athletes
B. Only retired coaches
C. Sports journalists
D. Spectators
Show Answer
Answer: A
The framework provides special treatment for certain minors and other specified vulnerable or protected athlete categories.
The framework provides special treatment for certain minors and other specified vulnerable or protected athlete categories.
Question 95
The revamped Khelo India structure places particular emphasis on:
1. Women athletes
2. Para-athletes
3. Indigenous sports
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
The expanded talent and competition structure specifically highlights women, para-athletes and indigenous sports.
The expanded talent and competition structure specifically highlights women, para-athletes and indigenous sports.
Question 96
Which new category was introduced for school athletes under the expanded Khelo India framework?
A. Emerging Khelo India Athletes
B. National Civil Services Athletes
C. Panchayat Olympic Officers
D. District Sports Regulators
Show Answer
Answer: A
The expanded scheme introduces the Emerging Khelo India Athletes category at the school level.
The expanded scheme introduces the Emerging Khelo India Athletes category at the school level.
Question 97
Projects under PM Surya Sarovar Yojana are envisaged for sanction during:
A. 2026–27 to 2030–31
B. 2026–27 only
C. 2031–32 to 2040–41
D. 2020–21 to 2024–25
Show Answer
Answer: A
The scheme provides for project sanction between 2026–27 and 2030–31.
The scheme provides for project sanction between 2026–27 and 2030–31.
Question 98
The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme approved in July 2026 is scheduled to operate from:
A. 2026–27 to 2030–31
B. 2026–27 to 2027–28 only
C. 2030–31 to 2040–41
D. One financial year only
Show Answer
Answer: A
The approved implementation period is 2026–27 through 2030–31.
The approved implementation period is 2026–27 through 2030–31.
Question 99
With reference to Semicon 1.0 progress reported in July 2026, consider the following statements:
1. Twelve semiconductor manufacturing units had been approved.
2. Three had started commercial production in 2026.
3. Twenty-four semiconductor design projects from start-ups and MSMEs had been approved for financial support.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D
All three figures formed part of the progress reported while announcing Semicon 2.0.
All three figures formed part of the progress reported while announcing Semicon 2.0.
Question 100
Consider the following pairs:
1. Semicon 2.0 — Semiconductor ecosystem
2. Samudra Manthan — Offshore oil and gas exploration
3. PM Surya Sarovar — Floating solar photovoltaic projects
4. PM-KISAN — Direct income support to eligible farmer families
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D
All four are correctly matched and represent major July 2026 current-affairs themes relevant to UPSC Prelims 2027.
All four are correctly matched and represent major July 2026 current-affairs themes relevant to UPSC Prelims 2027.
