Polity PYQ MCQ – UPSC, BPSC & UPPCS
Daily PYQ Series | Day 2 | 30 Questions
UPSC CSE Prelims – 2025
Q1. Consider the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. After dissolution, the Speaker continues until just before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha.
2. A person elected Speaker must resign from his/her political party.
3. Removal requires a majority of all the then members and at least 14 days' notice.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Constitution does not require the Speaker to resign from the political party.
Q2. State ratification by at least half of the States is required for amendment relating to:
1. Union List in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of executive power of a State
3. Conditions of Governor's office
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Changes affecting the Seventh Schedule and executive powers of Union/States require State ratification under Article 368.
Q3. Regarding constitutional immunities:
1. A Governor is not answerable to a court for official exercise of powers.
2. Criminal proceedings cannot continue against a Governor during the term.
3. State legislators enjoy immunity for statements made inside the House.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Articles 361 and 194 provide these protections to the Governor and State legislators.
Q4. How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive — DPSP
2. Preserving composite culture — Fundamental Duty
3. Prohibition of child labour in factories — Fundamental Right
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Show Answer
All three are correctly matched: Articles 50, 51A(f) and 24 respectively.
Q5. Regarding the President's pardoning power:
1. Its exercise is subject to limited judicial review.
2. The President may exercise it without Central Government advice.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither
Show Answer
The President acts on ministerial advice, while the exercise of Article 72 power can undergo limited judicial review.
Q6. Regarding the Delimitation Commission:
1. Its orders cannot be challenged in a court.
2. Parliament or a State Legislature cannot modify its orders when they are laid before them.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither
Show Answer
Delimitation orders have the force of law and legislatures cannot modify them.
Q7. Which of the following were established directly under constitutional provisions?
1. Inter-State Council
2. National Security Council
3. Zonal Councils
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Show Answer
Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis under Article 263. Zonal Councils are statutory.
Q8. Regarding Lokpal, which statement is correct?
A. Only statement III concerning the minimum age of 45 years
B. Statements II and III
C. Statements I and IV
D. None
Show Answer
The minimum age requirement of 45 years is correct. Lokpal's jurisdiction is wider than the other statements suggest.
Q9. Consider the following:
1. Tenth Schedule disqualification of a Lok Sabha member is decided by the President.
2. The expression “political party” does not occur anywhere in the Constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Show Answer
Tenth Schedule cases are decided by the Presiding Officer, and “political party” appears in the Tenth Schedule.
Q10. Under the Anti-Defection Law:
1. A nominated member is prohibited from joining a political party during the first six months.
2. No statutory time limit is prescribed for the Presiding Officer to decide a defection petition.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. Neither
Show Answer
A nominated member may join a party within six months. The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe a decision deadline.
BPSC – 70th CCE Prelims 2024
Q1. Which Constitutional Amendment ended nominated Anglo-Indian seats in the Lok Sabha?
A. 108th
B. 100th
C. 102nd
D. 104th
Show Answer
The 104th Constitutional Amendment discontinued Anglo-Indian nominated representation.
Q2. Under Article 243J, who can provide for maintenance and audit of Panchayat accounts?
A. Parliament
B. State Legislature
C. District Collector
D. State Finance Commission
Show Answer
Article 243J authorises the State Legislature to make such provisions.
Q3. Which two words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
A. Democratic and Socialist
B. Republic and Secular
C. Socialist and Sovereign
D. Secular and Socialist
Show Answer
The 42nd Amendment added “Socialist” and “Secular”; it also added “Integrity” in the fraternity clause.
Q4. Which provision disqualifies an MP for holding an office of profit?
A. Article 102(1)(c)
B. Article 102(1)(b)
C. Article 102(1)(d)
D. Article 102(1)(a)
Show Answer
Article 102(1)(a) covers disqualification for holding an office of profit.
Q5. What is the main objective of a Cut Motion in Parliament?
A. To seek reduction of a demand for expenditure
B. To stop day-to-day government expenditure
C. To block the Consolidated Fund
D. To stop all government grants
Show Answer
A Cut Motion seeks reduction in a particular Demand for Grant during budget discussion.
Q6. Which was NOT a feature associated with the Government of India Act, 1935?
A. Reconstruction of Governor-General's Executive Council
B. Provincial Autonomy
C. Appraisal of the Act itself
D. Proposal for an Indian Federation
Show Answer
“Appraisal of the Act” was not a constitutional feature of the 1935 Act.
Q7. Which former Lok Sabha Speaker later became President of India?
A. Giani Zail Singh
B. V. V. Giri
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Show Answer
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy served as Lok Sabha Speaker before becoming President.
Q8. Which Amendment restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of Lok Sabha/Assembly strength?
A. 92nd
B. 95th
C. 91st
D. 93rd
Show Answer
The 91st Constitutional Amendment introduced the 15% ceiling.
Q9. Article 200 itself prescribes what numerical time limit for a Governor to return a non-Money Bill for reconsideration?
A. Three months
B. One month
C. No fixed numerical period
D. Two months
Show Answer
As asked in the 2024 PYQ, Article 200 itself did not specify a fixed number of months.
Q10. Who decides an MLA's disqualification on grounds other than the Tenth Schedule?
A. Governor
B. Speaker
C. State Election Commission
D. High Court
Show Answer
Under Article 192, the Governor decides after obtaining the Election Commission of India's opinion.
UPPCS Prelims – 2024
Q1. Which Article–subject pair is incorrectly matched?
A. Article 153 — Governor
B. Article 154 — Executive power of Governor
C. Article 155 — Removal of Governor
D. Article 156 — Term of Governor
Show Answer
Article 155 deals with appointment of the Governor, not removal.
Q2. Which freedom is NOT currently guaranteed by Article 19?
A. Peaceful assembly without arms
B. Right to acquire and dispose of property
C. Free movement throughout India
D. Practising a profession or trade
Show Answer
The 44th Amendment removed the Fundamental Right to property; property is now protected under Article 300A.
Q3. Assertion: One person cannot serve as Governor of two or more States simultaneously.
Reason: Article 153 provides for a Governor for each State.
A. Both true, R not explanation
B. A false, R true
C. Both true and R explains A
D. A true, R false
Show Answer
The Constitution allows the same person to be Governor of two or more States.
Q4. Match correctly:
A. Consolidated Fund of India — 1. Article 266
B. Finance Commission — 2. Article 360
C. Financial Emergency — 3. Article 280
D. CAG — 4. Article 148
A. 3-1-2-4
B. 4-1-3-2
C. 1-3-2-4
D. 1-2-3-4
Show Answer
Correct sequence: 266, 280, 360 and 148.
Q5. Right against Exploitation includes:
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Prohibition of trafficking and forced labour
3. Prohibition of child employment in factories and mines
4. Minority protection
A. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 4
Show Answer
Articles 23 and 24 form the Right against Exploitation.
Q6. Assertion: Article 352 deals with proclamation of National Emergency.
Reason: A National Emergency may be proclaimed at any time without specified constitutional grounds.
A. Both true, R not explanation
B. A false, R true
C. Both true and R explains A
D. A true, R false
Show Answer
Article 352 applies only on specified grounds such as war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Q7. UPSC derives its functions from which sources?
1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Executive rules and orders
4. Conventions
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
The UPPCS official key treated all four as sources governing UPSC's functions.
Q8. Match the amendments with their years:
A. 42nd — 1. 1985
B. 52nd — 2. 2011
C. 86th — 3. 1976
D. 96th — 4. 2002
A. 2-1-3-4
B. 4-3-2-1
C. 1-2-3-4
D. 3-1-4-2
Show Answer
42nd–1976, 52nd–1985, 86th–2002 and 96th–2011.
Q9. Regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. Constitution provides one such officer for every State.
2. Article 350B was inserted by the 9th Constitutional Amendment.
A. 2 only
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. 1 only
D. Both
Show Answer
Both statements are incorrect. Article 350B was added by the 7th Amendment.
Q10. Which of the following were treated in the UPPCS key as Concurrent List subjects?
1. Trade and Commerce
2. Adulteration of goods
3. Succession
A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3
Show Answer
The official key accepted all three; trade and commerce appears in the Concurrent List for specified commodities and contexts.
Day 2 – Polity | 30 Questions | Click “Show Answer” only after attempting
