Today UPSC PYQ – 20 UPSC Prelims Questions
UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 Preparation
Previous Year Questions • Concepts • Elimination
DAILY UPSC PYQ
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q1. Among the following, how many are classified as Alternative Investment Funds?
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
Answer: B
Hedge funds and venture capital funds fall within the AIF framework. Bonds and ordinary stocks are conventional investment instruments.
Hedge funds and venture capital funds fall within the AIF framework. Bonds and ordinary stocks are conventional investment instruments.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q2. Which of the following are sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government securities
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending directly to private companies
V. Issuing currency
I. Buying and selling Government securities
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending directly to private companies
V. Issuing currency
Answer: D
RBI earns income through its holdings and transactions in government securities and foreign assets. Pension fund management and direct lending to private companies are not its normal income sources.
RBI earns income through its holdings and transactions in government securities and foreign assets. Pension fund management and direct lending to private companies are not its normal income sources.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q3. Consider the following organisation-function-ministry combinations:
1. Directorate of Enforcement — Fugitive Economic Offenders Act — Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Customs Act — Ministry of Finance
3. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — tax-related data analytics — Ministry of Finance
How many are correctly matched?
1. Directorate of Enforcement — Fugitive Economic Offenders Act — Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Customs Act — Ministry of Finance
3. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — tax-related data analytics — Ministry of Finance
How many are correctly matched?
Answer: B
The DRI and Directorate General of Systems and Data Management are correctly linked with the Ministry of Finance. The Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The DRI and Directorate General of Systems and Data Management are correctly linked with the Ministry of Finance. The Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR):
I. It is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India for all listed companies.
II. Its disclosures are largely non-financial in nature.
I. It is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India for all listed companies.
II. Its disclosures are largely non-financial in nature.
Answer: B
BRSR is associated with SEBI, not RBI. It focuses mainly on environmental, social and governance-related disclosures.
BRSR is associated with SEBI, not RBI. It focuses mainly on environmental, social and governance-related disclosures.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q5. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Income from allied agricultural activities such as poultry and wool rearing in rural areas is completely exempt from tax.
Statement II: Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under the Income-tax Act.
Which option is correct?
Statement I: Income from allied agricultural activities such as poultry and wool rearing in rural areas is completely exempt from tax.
Statement II: Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset under the Income-tax Act.
Which option is correct?
Answer: D
Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset. However, allied activities such as poultry and wool rearing do not automatically receive the same agricultural-income exemption.
Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of capital asset. However, allied activities such as poultry and wool rearing do not automatically receive the same agricultural-income exemption.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q6. Consider the following statements about India's critical minerals:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership.
II. India possesses adequate resources of all 30 critical minerals identified by it.
III. The 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act enabled the Centre to exclusively auction certain critical-mineral blocks.
Which statements are correct?
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership.
II. India possesses adequate resources of all 30 critical minerals identified by it.
III. The 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act enabled the Centre to exclusively auction certain critical-mineral blocks.
Which statements are correct?
Answer: C
India joined the Minerals Security Partnership and the MMDR framework was amended regarding certain critical minerals. India does not possess adequate domestic resources of all identified critical minerals.
India joined the Minerals Security Partnership and the MMDR framework was amended regarding certain critical minerals. India does not possess adequate domestic resources of all identified critical minerals.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q7. Why are bondholders generally considered to face lower investment risk than stockholders?
I. Bondholders are creditors whereas stockholders are owners.
II. Bondholders have priority over shareholders in repayment.
I. Bondholders are creditors whereas stockholders are owners.
II. Bondholders have priority over shareholders in repayment.
Answer: A
Bondholders are creditors of the company, while shareholders are owners. Debt claims generally receive priority over equity claims during repayment.
Bondholders are creditors of the company, while shareholders are owners. Debt claims generally receive priority over equity claims during repayment.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q8. Consider the following statements about India's equity-options market:
I. India represents a very large share of global equity-options trading.
II. India's stock-market capitalisation has at times surpassed Hong Kong's.
III. India has no regulator dealing with risks in options trading.
I. India represents a very large share of global equity-options trading.
II. India's stock-market capitalisation has at times surpassed Hong Kong's.
III. India has no regulator dealing with risks in options trading.
Answer: A
India has become a major global market for equity options and its market capitalisation has at times exceeded Hong Kong's. SEBI regulates the securities market and investor protection.
India has become a major global market for equity options and its market capitalisation has at times exceeded Hong Kong's. SEBI regulates the securities market and investor protection.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q9. Consider the following statements about a circular economy:
Statement I: It can reduce greenhouse-gas emissions.
Statement II: It reduces dependence on virgin raw materials.
Statement III: It reduces wastage during production.
Which option is correct?
Statement I: It can reduce greenhouse-gas emissions.
Statement II: It reduces dependence on virgin raw materials.
Statement III: It reduces wastage during production.
Which option is correct?
Answer: A
Reuse, recycling and resource efficiency reduce demand for virgin materials and waste generation. These mechanisms can reduce energy use and associated greenhouse-gas emissions.
Reuse, recycling and resource efficiency reduce demand for virgin materials and waste generation. These mechanisms can reduce energy use and associated greenhouse-gas emissions.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding capital receipts:
I. They may create a liability or reduce government assets.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a government liability.
I. They may create a liability or reduce government assets.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a government liability.
Answer: A
Borrowings create liabilities while disinvestment reduces government assets. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and does not create a liability.
Borrowings create liabilities while disinvestment reduces government assets. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt and does not create a liability.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q11. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He respected traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He advocated rational thinking, human dignity and social equality.
I. He respected traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He advocated rational thinking, human dignity and social equality.
Answer: C
Roy combined engagement with Indian philosophical traditions with advocacy of rationalism, social reform, human dignity and equality.
Roy combined engagement with Indian philosophical traditions with advocacy of rationalism, social reform, human dignity and equality.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q12. How many of the following were components of the Non-Cooperation Programme?
I. Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth
II. Strict adherence to non-violence
III. Retention of British titles without using them publicly
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for dispute settlement
I. Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth
II. Strict adherence to non-violence
III. Retention of British titles without using them publicly
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for dispute settlement
Answer: C
Boycott of courts and foreign cloth, non-violence and alternative dispute institutions were part of the programme. The movement called for surrendering titles rather than retaining them.
Boycott of courts and foreign cloth, non-violence and alternative dispute institutions were part of the programme. The movement called for surrendering titles rather than retaining them.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q13. The ancient irrigation device known as the Araghatta was essentially:
Answer: B
Araghatta was a water-lifting device using a rotating wheel fitted with pots or containers that lifted water for irrigation.
Araghatta was a water-lifting device using a rotating wheel fitted with pots or containers that lifted water for irrigation.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q14. Which Pallava ruler was associated with the titles Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara?
Answer: A
Mahendravarman I was a prominent Pallava ruler associated with these titles and with early rock-cut architectural developments.
Mahendravarman I was a prominent Pallava ruler associated with these titles and with early rock-cut architectural developments.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q15. Fa-hien, the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India during the reign of:
Answer: B
Fa-hien travelled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II and left valuable observations on the Gupta-period society and administration.
Fa-hien travelled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II and left valuable observations on the Gupta-period society and administration.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q16. Who led the Chola military expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom in Southeast Asia?
Answer: C
Rajendra I launched a major naval expedition against Srivijaya in Southeast Asia, demonstrating the maritime reach of the Chola state.
Rajendra I launched a major naval expedition against Srivijaya in Southeast Asia, demonstrating the maritime reach of the Chola state.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q17. Consider the following ancient territorial-region and river pairs:
1. Asmaka — Godavari
2. Kamboja — Vipas
3. Avanti — Mahanadi
4. Kosala — Sarayu
How many are correctly matched?
1. Asmaka — Godavari
2. Kamboja — Vipas
3. Avanti — Mahanadi
4. Kosala — Sarayu
How many are correctly matched?
Answer: B
Asmaka–Godavari and Kosala–Sarayu are correctly matched. Kamboja–Vipas and Avanti–Mahanadi are incorrect.
Asmaka–Godavari and Kosala–Sarayu are correctly matched. Kamboja–Vipas and Avanti–Mahanadi are incorrect.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q18. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in 1901 at:
Answer: D
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore in 1901 to systematise and popularise Indian classical music education.
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore in 1901 to systematise and popularise Indian classical music education.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q19. Ashokan inscriptions indicate that Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta were important officials associated with:
Answer: B
These officials are associated with district-level administration in the Mauryan administrative system described through Ashokan inscriptions.
These officials are associated with district-level administration in the Mauryan administrative system described through Ashokan inscriptions.
UPSC Prelims 2025
Q20. Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. Congress adopted Swaraj through legitimate and peaceful means as its objective.
II. Civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes were planned as later stages if Swaraj was not achieved within the expected period and repression followed.
I. Congress adopted Swaraj through legitimate and peaceful means as its objective.
II. Civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes were planned as later stages if Swaraj was not achieved within the expected period and repression followed.
Answer: C
Both statements correctly describe the planned structure and objective of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Both statements correctly describe the planned structure and objective of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
