Daily PYQ Practice – UPSC, BPSC & UPPCS | Prelims 2027 | UPSCJOURNAL

Daily PYQ Practice

UPSC CSE • BPSC • UPPCS

Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

UPSC CSE Prelims — Modern History

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2024

Q1. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation based on the union of British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: A. 1 only

The Act proposed an All-India Federation, although it never came into operation. Defence and External Affairs were reserved subjects under the Governor-General rather than ordinary federal legislative control.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2024

Q2. With reference to revenue collection under British rule, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement, peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, a Zamindar could lose his Zamindari for failure to pay revenue by the stipulated date.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: B. 2 only

The Permanent Settlement imposed a rigid revenue obligation on zamindars. Ryotwari cultivators did not enjoy a general automatic exemption whenever harvests failed.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2023

Q3. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor-General of Bengal designated as the Governor-General of India?

A. Regulating Act

B. Pitt's India Act

C. Charter Act of 1793

D. Charter Act of 1833

Show Answer

Answer: D. Charter Act of 1833

The Charter Act of 1833 redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Lord William Bentinck became the first to hold the title.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2023

Q4. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: 7 August is observed as National Handloom Day.
Statement II: The Swadeshi Movement was formally launched on the same date in 1905.

A. Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both statements are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer

Answer: A

National Handloom Day commemorates the Swadeshi Movement associated with 7 August 1905 and its emphasis on indigenous production.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2023

Q5. Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with:

A. Archaeological excavations

B. Establishment of English press in colonial India

C. Establishment of churches in princely states

D. Construction of railways in colonial India

Show Answer

Answer: A. Archaeological excavations

These figures are associated with archaeological and antiquarian work in India, particularly documentation and exploration of historic sites and remains.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022

Q6. Under the Government of India Act, 1919, which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Show Answer

Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only

Under provincial dyarchy, justice, land revenue and police were reserved. Local self-government was a transferred subject.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022

Q7. Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who among the above was actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only

Show Answer

Answer: D. 3 only

Rash Behari Bose was closely connected with the revolutionary plans of the Ghadar movement in India.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022

Q8. With reference to the proposals of the Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. A Province unwilling to accept the new Constitution could enter into a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: B. 2 only

Provincial representatives were to be elected, not nominated, while princely-state representatives were nominated. Provinces were allowed an opt-out arrangement.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022

Q9. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established factories on the east coast on lands granted by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510. The English obtained the Madras site from a local representative linked to the Vijayanagara successor polity. The first statement is incorrect.

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2021

Q10. With reference to 8 August 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following is correct?

A. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC

B. The Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians

C. Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces

D. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with Dominion Status

Show Answer

Answer: A

The All India Congress Committee adopted the Quit India Resolution at Bombay on 8 August 1942. The mass arrests began immediately thereafter.

BPSC Prelims 2025 — Indian Economy

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q1. The ratio of total deposits that a commercial bank must keep with the Reserve Bank of India is called:

A. Legal Reserve Ratio

B. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

C. Cash Reserve Ratio

D. Deposit Ratio

Show Answer

Answer: C. Cash Reserve Ratio

CRR is the prescribed proportion of a bank's net demand and time liabilities maintained as cash balance with RBI.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q2. Who is the Chairperson of the GST Council?

A. RBI Governor

B. Union Minister of Corporate Affairs

C. Chairman of Finance Commission

D. Union Finance Minister

Show Answer

Answer: D. Union Finance Minister

Article 279A provides for the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q3. Which among the following is a tool of Fiscal Policy?

A. Taxes

B. Cash Reserve Ratio

C. Credit Ceiling

D. Bank Rate

Show Answer

Answer: A. Taxes

Taxation and government expenditure are fiscal-policy instruments. CRR and Bank Rate belong to monetary policy.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q4. Grey Revolution is related to:

A. Fisheries

B. Fertilizers

C. Oilseeds

D. Potatoes

Show Answer

Answer: B. Fertilizers

Grey Revolution is associated with growth in fertilizer production and use.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q5. Which sector in India has benefited the most from globalization?

A. Services

B. All sectors equally

C. Manufacturing

D. Agriculture

Show Answer

Answer: A. Services

India's services sector—especially IT, IT-enabled services, finance and communications—expanded strongly during the post-reform globalization period.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q6. Choose the correctly matched pair:

A. Fourth Five-Year Plan — Focus on Services

B. Fifth Five-Year Plan — Focus on Industry

C. Third Five-Year Plan — Focus on Globalisation

D. First Five-Year Plan — Focus on Agriculture

Show Answer

Answer: D

The First Five-Year Plan placed strong emphasis on agriculture, irrigation and rehabilitation in the backdrop of food shortages.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q7. Which of the following is a function of a Central Bank?

A. Managing the repo rate

B. Lending to commercial banks

C. Providing banking facilities to Government

D. All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: D. All of the above

A central bank conducts monetary policy, acts as banker to government and provides liquidity to the banking system.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q8. NNP at factor cost is equal to:

A. GNP at factor cost − Net indirect tax

B. GNP at market price

C. Disposable Personal Income

D. National Income

Show Answer

Answer: D. National Income

In the traditional national-income accounting terminology used in such questions, Net National Product at factor cost is National Income.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q9. The legally stipulated maximum size beyond which an individual farmer cannot hold agricultural land is called:

A. Land consolidation

B. Land ceiling

C. Abolition of intermediaries

D. Tenancy reform

Show Answer

Answer: B. Land ceiling

Land-ceiling legislation fixes the maximum permissible agricultural landholding and provides for acquisition and redistribution of surplus land.

71st BPSC PRELIMS 2025

Q10. The expanded form of UPI is:

A. Uninterrupted Payment Initiation

B. Uniform Payment Inception

C. Unified Payment Interface

D. United Payment Initiation

Show Answer

Answer: C. Unified Payment Interface

UPI stands for Unified Payments Interface, the instant bank-to-bank payment system operated by NPCI.

UPPCS Prelims 2025 — Science & Technology

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q1. With reference to Baking Soda, consider the following statements:

1. It is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.

A. Only 2

B. Neither 1 nor 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Only 1

Show Answer

Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) and has applications in certain fire-extinguishing systems.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q2. Match the following space missions with their launch dates:

A. Chandrayaan-3 — 14 July 2023
B. Aditya-L1 — 2 September 2023
C. INSAT-3DS — 17 February 2024
D. RLV-LEX-01 — 2 April 2023

A. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

B. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Show Answer

Answer: B

Chandrayaan-3 launched on 14 July 2023, Aditya-L1 on 2 September 2023, INSAT-3DS on 17 February 2024 and RLV-LEX-01 was conducted on 2 April 2023.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q3. Which two are the major constituents of biogas?

1. Methane
2. Butane
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide

A. 1 and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 2

Show Answer

Answer: A. 1 and 3

Biogas consists predominantly of methane and carbon dioxide, with smaller quantities of other gases.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q4. Which of the following gases is lighter than air?

1. Hydrogen chloride
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Helium

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Only 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: C. Only 3

Helium has a molar mass of about 4 g/mol compared with the average molar mass of air of about 29 g/mol. HCl and SO₂ are heavier than air.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding earthworms:

1. Earthworms improve soil fertility and are often called friends of farmers.
2. Earthworms have two pairs of hearts.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: A. Only 1

Earthworms improve soil structure and nutrient cycling. The statement describing them as having only two pairs of hearts is incorrect.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q6. Which of the following enzymes is secreted in the stomach for digestion of proteins?

1. Chymotrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Pepsin

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: C. 3 only

Pepsin acts in the stomach. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are pancreatic proteolytic enzymes acting mainly in the small intestine.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding blood:

1. Blood consists of plasma and different types of cells/formed elements.
2. Haemoglobin gives blood its characteristic red colour.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Blood consists of plasma plus formed elements, and haemoglobin in red blood cells is responsible for its red colour.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q8. Consider the following acid–source pairs:

1. Lactic acid — Curd
2. Tartaric acid — Grapes
3. Acetic acid — Potato

Which pair is NOT correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: C. 3 only

Lactic acid is associated with curd and tartaric acid occurs naturally in grapes. Acetic acid is characteristically associated with vinegar, not potato.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. Dolphins and whales breathe through blowholes.
2. Earthworms respire through their skin.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Cetaceans breathe atmospheric air through blowholes, while earthworms exchange gases across their moist skin.

UPPCS PRELIMS 2025

Q10. With reference to silver articles, consider the following statements:

1. Silver articles become black after prolonged exposure to air.
2. This is due to formation of a coating of silver sulphide.

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show Answer

Answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Silver tarnishes because it reacts with sulphur-containing compounds in air, producing a dark silver sulphide layer.