Q1. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
1. Its original jurisdiction extends to every dispute between the Union and a State irrespective of the nature of the dispute.
2. The President may seek its opinion on a question of law or fact of public importance.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court under its advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 2 and 3 only
Article 143 enables the President to seek the Supreme Court's advisory opinion. Such an opinion is advisory rather than binding. Article 131 does not cover every conceivable Union-State dispute; constitutional conditions and exclusions apply.
Elimination clue: Be suspicious whenever constitutional jurisdiction is described using words such as “every” or “irrespective”.
POLITY
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the Vice-President of India:
1. Elected members as well as nominated members of Parliament participate in the election.
2. Members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate.
3. The election is held by proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B. All three
The Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members. State legislatures have no role. The system is proportional representation through the single transferable vote and secret ballot.
Elimination clue: Contrast this electoral college with that of the President.
ECONOMY
Q3. Suppose a country's nominal GDP increases while its real GDP remains unchanged. Which one of the following most directly explains this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Nominal GDP values output at current prices, whereas real GDP removes the effect of price changes. If real output is unchanged but nominal GDP rises, an increase in prices can explain the difference.
Elimination clue: Nominal versus real GDP questions usually test the separation of price changes from changes in physical output.
ECONOMY
Q4. Which of the following would ordinarily be included in the current account of a country's Balance of Payments?
1. Export of software services
2. Interest received from an overseas investment
3. Remittances received from workers abroad
4. Purchase of foreign company shares by a domestic resident
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Services, primary income and transfers/remittances enter the current account. Acquisition of foreign financial assets is recorded under the financial account.
Elimination clue: Buying shares changes ownership of a financial asset; it is not payment for currently produced goods or services.
GEOGRAPHY
Q5. Consider the following statements about ocean salinity:
1. High evaporation can increase surface salinity.
2. Large freshwater inflow from rivers can reduce surface salinity.
3. Regions receiving heavy precipitation necessarily have the world's highest ocean salinity.
4. Formation of sea ice can increase the salinity of surrounding seawater.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. Only three
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Heavy precipitation generally dilutes surface seawater rather than producing the highest salinity.
Elimination clue: Think in terms of adding or removing freshwater.
GEOGRAPHY • MAP
Q6. Consider the following pairs:
1. Strait of Dover — English Channel and North Sea
2. Strait of Tiran — Gulf of Aqaba and Red Sea
3. Torres Strait — Tasman Sea and Indian Ocean
4. Palk Strait — India and Sri Lanka
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Torres Strait lies between Australia and New Guinea and connects the Coral Sea with the Arafura Sea region; the stated pairing is incorrect.
Elimination clue: Torres Strait should immediately trigger the Australia–New Guinea map.
ENVIRONMENT
Q7. With reference to keystone species, consider the following statements:
1. Their ecological impact can be disproportionately large relative to their abundance.
2. Removal of a keystone species can substantially alter community structure.
3. A keystone species must necessarily be the most abundant species in its ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
A keystone species is defined by its disproportionately important ecological role, not by numerical dominance. Its removal can trigger major changes in food webs and community structure.
Elimination clue: Keystone ≠ dominant or most abundant species.
ENVIRONMENT
Q8. Which of the following can contribute directly to ocean deoxygenation?
1. Warming of seawater
2. Nutrient enrichment and eutrophication
3. Stronger stratification of the upper ocean
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Warmer water holds less dissolved oxygen. Eutrophication can increase oxygen consumption during decomposition, while stronger stratification reduces vertical mixing and oxygen replenishment.
Elimination clue: Ask whether the process either lowers oxygen solubility, consumes oxygen or prevents its replenishment.
AGRICULTURE
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding soil salinisation in irrigated agriculture:
1. Poor drainage can contribute to salt accumulation in the root zone.
2. High evaporation can bring dissolved salts towards the soil surface.
3. Excessive irrigation can never contribute to salinity if the irrigation water itself is fresh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Waterlogging, poor drainage and strong evaporation can raise the water table and concentrate salts near the surface. Irrigation management therefore matters even where irrigation water is not highly saline.
Elimination clue: “Never” makes Statement 3 too absolute.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q10. With reference to superconductors, consider the following statements:
1. Below a critical temperature, their electrical resistance can fall to zero.
2. Superconductivity is associated with expulsion of magnetic flux from the material under appropriate conditions.
3. All known superconductors operate at ordinary room temperature and pressure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Zero electrical resistance below a critical temperature and the Meissner effect are characteristic features of superconductivity. Routine room-temperature, ambient-pressure superconductivity is not an established property of all superconductors.
Elimination clue: Separate laboratory claims from established deployable technology.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q11. With reference to viruses, consider the following statements:
1. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of DNA or RNA.
2. They possess independent cellular machinery for reproduction outside a host cell.
3. Antibiotics designed against bacterial cellular processes are generally ineffective against viral infections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Viruses carry DNA or RNA but depend on host-cell machinery for replication. Conventional antibacterial antibiotics therefore do not treat viral infections.
1. Uttaramerur inscription — Local self-government
2. Nasik inscriptions — Satavahana history
3. Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman — Sanskrit inscription
4. Prayaga Prashasti — Samudragupta
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: D. All four
Uttaramerur records illuminate Chola local administration; Nasik inscriptions are important for Satavahana history; Rudradaman's Junagadh inscription is a celebrated Sanskrit inscription; and the Prayaga Prashasti records Samudragupta's achievements.
Revision: UPSC frequently links inscriptions with dynasty, ruler, language and administrative information.
ART & CULTURE
Q13. With reference to Indian temple architecture, consider the following statements:
1. In the Nagara tradition, the tower above the sanctum is generally called the shikhara.
2. Gopurams became particularly prominent in many South Indian temple complexes.
3. A mandapa refers exclusively to the innermost sanctum containing the principal deity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
The mandapa is generally a pillared hall or pavilion. The innermost sanctum is the garbhagriha.
1. International Court of Justice — Disputes between States
2. International Criminal Court — Criminal responsibility of individuals
3. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea — Interpretation and application of UNCLOS-related matters
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: B. All three
The ICJ adjudicates disputes between States; the ICC deals with individual criminal responsibility for specified international crimes; and ITLOS is a judicial body established under UNCLOS.
Q15. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:
1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India.
2. After leaving office, the CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India.
3. The administrative expenses of the CAG's office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
The President appoints the CAG. The Constitution protects the institution's independence through safeguards including charged expenditure. A former CAG is not eligible for further office under the Union or a State government.
Elimination clue: Constitutional audit independence is the key principle behind the service safeguards.
