UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice – Set 8
15 Advanced UPSC-Level MCQs
Concept • Application • Elimination
ADVANCED PRACTICE
Q1. With reference to the constitutional position of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The President may return a Bill for reconsideration only when it is an ordinary Bill.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill cannot be returned by the President for reconsideration.
3. The President is constitutionally bound to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed under Article 368.
Answer: B
The President can return an ordinary Bill for reconsideration but cannot return a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Under Article 368, once such a Bill is duly passed, the President shall give assent.
The President can return an ordinary Bill for reconsideration but cannot return a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Under Article 368, once such a Bill is duly passed, the President shall give assent.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
1. It can authorise Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
2. Such a resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
3. A resolution under Article 249 remains effective indefinitely unless revoked by the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: C
Article 249 allows Rajya Sabha to authorise Parliament to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. The resolution normally operates for a period not exceeding one year at a time.
Article 249 allows Rajya Sabha to authorise Parliament to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. The resolution normally operates for a period not exceeding one year at a time.
Q3. Consider the following statements about fiscal deficit:
1. Fiscal deficit represents the total borrowing requirement of the government, subject to the treatment of certain receipts and expenditures in the budget.
2. A reduction in fiscal deficit necessarily implies a reduction in government expenditure.
3. Fiscal deficit can decline even when government expenditure increases.
Answer: A
Fiscal deficit broadly reflects the government's borrowing requirement. It can fall even if expenditure rises, for example when receipts rise faster than expenditure. Therefore, statement 2 is too absolute.
Fiscal deficit broadly reflects the government's borrowing requirement. It can fall even if expenditure rises, for example when receipts rise faster than expenditure. Therefore, statement 2 is too absolute.
Q4. Which of the following situations can directly improve a country's current account balance, other things remaining unchanged?
1. An increase in merchandise exports.
2. A decline in merchandise imports.
3. An increase in net invisible receipts.
Answer: D
The current account includes trade in goods and services, primary income and secondary income. Higher exports, lower imports and higher net invisible receipts can all improve the current account balance.
The current account includes trade in goods and services, primary income and secondary income. Higher exports, lower imports and higher net invisible receipts can all improve the current account balance.
Q5. With reference to ocean circulation, consider the following statements:
1. Upwelling can bring nutrient-rich deeper water towards the surface.
2. Coastal upwelling can contribute to highly productive marine ecosystems.
3. Upwelling necessarily causes warmer sea-surface temperatures along the coast.
Answer: B
Upwelling generally brings colder, nutrient-rich water from depth towards the surface. These nutrients support phytoplankton and marine productivity. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Upwelling generally brings colder, nutrient-rich water from depth towards the surface. These nutrients support phytoplankton and marine productivity. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding ocean salinity:
1. High evaporation generally tends to increase surface salinity.
2. Heavy precipitation generally tends to reduce surface salinity.
3. River discharge into the ocean generally increases the salinity of nearby surface waters.
Answer: C
Evaporation removes water while leaving dissolved salts behind, increasing salinity. Precipitation adds freshwater and tends to lower salinity. River discharge also generally lowers coastal surface salinity.
Evaporation removes water while leaving dissolved salts behind, increasing salinity. Precipitation adds freshwater and tends to lower salinity. River discharge also generally lowers coastal surface salinity.
Q7. With reference to ecological succession, consider the following statements:
1. Primary succession begins in an area where a soil substrate is initially absent or largely undeveloped.
2. Secondary succession generally proceeds faster than primary succession because some soil and biological legacies may remain.
3. Secondary succession can occur only after natural disasters and not after human disturbances.
Answer: A
Primary succession starts where soil is absent or poorly developed, while secondary succession occurs where an existing ecosystem has been disturbed but soil or other biological components remain. Human disturbances can also trigger secondary succession.
Primary succession starts where soil is absent or poorly developed, while secondary succession occurs where an existing ecosystem has been disturbed but soil or other biological components remain. Human disturbances can also trigger secondary succession.
Q8. Consider the following statements about the carbon cycle:
1. Photosynthesis transfers atmospheric carbon dioxide into organic matter.
2. Respiration releases carbon dioxide from organic matter.
3. Oceans can act both as sinks and sources of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Answer: D
Photosynthesis fixes atmospheric CO₂ into organic compounds, while respiration releases CO₂. Oceans absorb substantial CO₂ but can also release it under suitable physical and biological conditions.
Photosynthesis fixes atmospheric CO₂ into organic compounds, while respiration releases CO₂. Oceans absorb substantial CO₂ but can also release it under suitable physical and biological conditions.
Q9. With reference to Indian agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. Drip irrigation can reduce evaporation and conveyance losses compared with some conventional irrigation methods.
2. Drip irrigation is necessarily unsuitable for crops planted at high density.
3. Fertigation can be integrated with drip irrigation systems.
Answer: B
Drip systems deliver water close to the plant root zone and can reduce certain losses. Fertilizers can also be supplied through irrigation water. Statement 2 is an absolute and incorrect claim.
Drip systems deliver water close to the plant root zone and can reduce certain losses. Fertilizers can also be supplied through irrigation water. Statement 2 is an absolute and incorrect claim.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding CRISPR-based gene editing:
1. CRISPR systems can be designed to target specific DNA sequences.
2. CRISPR-based editing always introduces a completely new gene into the target organism.
3. Gene editing can involve targeted modification of an existing DNA sequence.
Answer: C
CRISPR systems use guide sequences to direct molecular machinery towards a target DNA sequence. Gene editing may modify, delete or otherwise alter existing DNA; it does not necessarily involve inserting a completely new gene.
CRISPR systems use guide sequences to direct molecular machinery towards a target DNA sequence. Gene editing may modify, delete or otherwise alter existing DNA; it does not necessarily involve inserting a completely new gene.
Q11. With reference to mRNA vaccines, consider the following statements:
1. The mRNA used in such vaccines can provide instructions for cells to produce a target antigen.
2. The vaccine mRNA needs to enter the nucleus to be translated into protein.
3. mRNA technology necessarily alters the recipient's genomic DNA.
Answer: A
mRNA provides instructions for protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. It does not need to enter the nucleus for translation and does not inherently alter genomic DNA.
mRNA provides instructions for protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. It does not need to enter the nucleus for translation and does not inherently alter genomic DNA.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhist philosophy and literature:
1. The Four Noble Truths form a central framework of Buddhist teaching.
2. The Eightfold Path is associated with the cessation of suffering.
3. The concept of anatta challenges the idea of a permanent, unchanging self.
Answer: D
The Four Noble Truths explain suffering, its origin, its cessation and the path leading to cessation. The Noble Eightfold Path is that path, while anatta refers to the absence of a permanent, unchanging self.
The Four Noble Truths explain suffering, its origin, its cessation and the path leading to cessation. The Noble Eightfold Path is that path, while anatta refers to the absence of a permanent, unchanging self.
Q13. With reference to Indian temple architecture, consider the following statements:
1. The Nagara style is broadly associated with northern India and commonly features a curvilinear shikhara.
2. The Dravida style is broadly associated with southern India and commonly features a pyramidal superstructure over the sanctum.
3. Gopurams are exclusive architectural features of Nagara temples.
Answer: B
Nagara temples generally have curvilinear shikharas, while Dravida temples characteristically have pyramidal vimanas over the sanctum. Large gopurams are particularly associated with South Indian temple complexes, making statement 3 incorrect.
Nagara temples generally have curvilinear shikharas, while Dravida temples characteristically have pyramidal vimanas over the sanctum. Large gopurams are particularly associated with South Indian temple complexes, making statement 3 incorrect.
Q14. Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council:
1. All five permanent members possess veto power on substantive matters.
2. An abstention by a permanent member does not necessarily prevent adoption of a substantive resolution if the required affirmative vote is otherwise obtained.
3. Every decision of the Security Council requires the affirmative vote of all five permanent members.
Answer: C
The five permanent members have veto power on substantive matters. However, a permanent member's abstention is not equivalent to a veto. Unanimous affirmative votes of all five permanent members are therefore not required.
The five permanent members have veto power on substantive matters. However, a permanent member's abstention is not equivalent to a veto. Unanimous affirmative votes of all five permanent members are therefore not required.
Q15. With reference to a Money Bill in India, consider the following statements:
1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill but can recommend amendments.
3. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: D
A Money Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha may recommend amendments but cannot amend it directly. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept those recommendations.
A Money Bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha may recommend amendments but cannot amend it directly. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept those recommendations.
