Q1. With reference to the anti-defection provisions of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. A nominated member may attract disqualification if he joins a political party after six months from taking his seat.
2. An independent member elected to a House may join a political party after election without attracting disqualification.
3. The merger exception requires not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party to agree to such merger.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
The Tenth Schedule permits a nominated member to join a party within six months of taking the seat. An independent elected member becomes liable to disqualification if he joins a political party after election. The merger exception requires at least two-thirds of the legislature party.
Elimination clue: Independent candidates have a stricter post-election rule than nominated members.
POLITY
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney-General of India:
1. He must possess the qualifications required for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He has the right to speak and participate in proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but has no right to vote merely by virtue of his office.
3. The Constitution fixes his tenure at five years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B. 1 and 2 only
The Attorney-General must be qualified to be appointed a Supreme Court judge. Article 88 gives him the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings without a vote. The Constitution does not prescribe a fixed five-year tenure.
Elimination clue: Constitutional offices do not all have fixed terms—check the exact constitutional wording.
ECONOMY
Q3. Suppose the Reserve Bank of India wishes to absorb surplus liquidity from the banking system. Which of the following actions can contribute to this objective?
1. Accepting funds under the Standing Deposit Facility
2. Selling government securities through open market operations
3. Reducing the Cash Reserve Ratio
4. Conducting a Variable Rate Reverse Repo operation
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2 and 4 only
SDF, sale of securities and VRRR can absorb liquidity. A reduction in CRR releases funds that banks had maintained with RBI and therefore tends to add liquidity rather than absorb it.
Elimination clue: Lower reserve requirement = more lendable funds, so Statement 3 points in the opposite direction.
ECONOMY
Q4. Consider the following transactions:
1. Government constructs a new national highway.
2. Government pays interest on its outstanding debt.
3. Government purchases new machinery for a public hospital.
4. Government pays pensions to retired employees.
How many of the above are ordinarily classified as capital expenditure?
Correct Answer: B. Only two
Construction of infrastructure and purchase of machinery create assets and are capital expenditure. Interest payments and pensions are revenue expenditure.
Elimination clue: Ask whether the expenditure creates an asset or reduces a liability.
GEOGRAPHY
Q5. Consider the following pairs:
1. Bab-el-Mandeb — Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
2. Strait of Malacca — Andaman Sea and South China Sea
3. Bosporus — Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea directly
4. Strait of Hormuz — Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: C. Only three
Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Bosporus connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara; the Mediterranean is reached further through the Dardanelles and Aegean Sea.
Elimination clue: In map questions, the word “directly” is often decisive.
GEOGRAPHY
Q6. With reference to ocean upwelling, consider the following statements:
1. It can bring cold, nutrient-rich subsurface water towards the surface.
2. Major upwelling regions can support highly productive fisheries.
3. Upwelling necessarily raises the sea-surface temperature of the region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Upwelling transports deeper nutrient-rich water to the sunlit surface, enhancing primary productivity and fisheries. Because deeper water is commonly colder, upwelling can lower rather than necessarily raise sea-surface temperature.
Elimination clue: Cold + nutrients + fisheries is the classic upwelling combination.
ENVIRONMENT
Q7. Consider the following ecosystem characteristics:
1. High species richness
2. Presence of several species performing similar ecological functions
3. Greater genetic diversity within important populations
4. Dependence on a single species for a critical ecosystem function
How many of the above can generally enhance ecological resilience?
Correct Answer: D. Only three
Species richness, functional redundancy and genetic diversity can improve an ecosystem's ability to withstand or recover from disturbances. Heavy dependence on a single species creates vulnerability.
Elimination clue: Resilience usually improves with diversity and redundancy, not single-point dependence.
ENVIRONMENT
Q8. With reference to blue carbon ecosystems, consider the following:
How many of the above are conventionally recognised as major coastal blue carbon ecosystems?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
Mangroves, seagrasses and tidal salt marshes are the principal coastal blue carbon ecosystems. Alpine grasslands are terrestrial ecosystems.
Elimination clue: “Blue carbon” should immediately make you think of coastal and marine vegetated ecosystems.
AGRICULTURE
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding biofertilizers:
1. Rhizobium can form symbiotic associations with roots of many leguminous plants.
2. Certain cyanobacteria can contribute biologically fixed nitrogen in paddy fields.
3. Biofertilizers necessarily supply all major plant nutrients in quantities sufficient to completely replace mineral fertilizers in every crop.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Rhizobium-legume symbiosis and nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria are important biological nutrient inputs. Biofertilizers do not universally provide every nutrient in quantities sufficient to replace all mineral fertilizers.
Elimination clue: Words such as “all”, “completely” and “every crop” should trigger scrutiny.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q10. With reference to lithium-ion batteries, consider the following statements:
1. Lithium ions move between the anode and cathode during charging and discharging.
2. The electrolyte principally allows ion transport between the electrodes.
3. Thermal runaway is impossible in lithium-ion cells because lithium is present only as ions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Lithium ions shuttle between electrodes and the electrolyte conducts ions. Lithium-ion batteries can experience thermal runaway when heat-generating reactions become self-sustaining.
Elimination clue: If thermal runaway were impossible, battery fire-management systems would not be a major engineering concern.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q11. Consider the following statements about Lagrange points in a two-body system:
1. They are locations where gravitational and orbital effects can permit a small object to maintain a relatively stable position with respect to the two larger bodies.
2. All five Lagrange points are equally stable.
3. Space observatories can use orbits associated with Lagrange points for scientific observations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only
Lagrange points arise from the gravitational and orbital dynamics of two massive bodies. L4 and L5 are dynamically stable under suitable conditions, whereas L1, L2 and L3 are unstable and spacecraft near them require station-keeping.
Elimination clue: Remember: five points, but not five equally stable locations.
ANCIENT INDIA
Q12. With reference to ancient Indian inscriptions, consider the following pairs:
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: C. Only three
The first three pairs are correct. The Aihole inscription is associated with Pulakeshin II and his court poet Ravikirti, not Ashoka.
Elimination clue: Aihole → Chalukyas → Pulakeshin II is a high-value association.
ART & CULTURE
Q13. Consider the following pairs:
1. Kalamkari — Painted or block-printed textile tradition
2. Bidriware — Metal craft with silver inlay
3. Pattachitra — Traditional scroll/cloth painting
4. Chikankari — Stone inlay work
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: D. Only three
Kalamkari, Bidriware and Pattachitra are correctly described. Chikankari is a traditional embroidery technique strongly associated with Lucknow, not stone inlay work.
Elimination clue: Chikankari = embroidery is enough to eliminate one pair.
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Q14. Consider the following pairs:
1. International Monetary Fund — Balance-of-payments support
2. International Development Association — Concessional assistance to poorer countries
3. International Finance Corporation — Lending only to sovereign governments
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency — Political-risk insurance and guarantees
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
IMF, IDA and MIGA are correctly matched. IFC focuses on private-sector development and does not lend only to sovereign governments.
Elimination clue: IFC → private sector. That single association resolves the question.
GOVERNANCE
Q15. With reference to decentralisation in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution provides for a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats.
2. The Constitution itself assigns an identical set of obligatory functions to every Panchayat across all States.
3. State legislatures may endow Panchayats with powers necessary to function as institutions of self-government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Article 243-I provides for State Finance Commissions, while Article 243-G enables State legislatures to endow Panchayats with powers and responsibilities. The Eleventh Schedule lists subjects but does not itself impose one identical mandatory functional assignment on every Panchayat nationwide.
Elimination clue: Local government is constitutionally recognised, but actual devolution substantially depends on State legislation.
