Q1. With reference to a Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, consider the following statements:
1. It may be proclaimed only when war or external aggression has actually occurred.
2. Written advice of the Union Cabinet is required before the President issues the Proclamation.
3. Once approved by Parliament, it continues indefinitely unless revoked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B. 2 only
Article 352 permits a proclamation when the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Written communication of the Cabinet decision is required. Parliamentary approval does not make an Emergency indefinite.
Elimination clue: “Actually occurred” and “indefinitely” are both extreme formulations.
POLITY
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368:
1. It may be introduced in either House of Parliament.
2. Prior recommendation of the President is necessary for its introduction.
3. There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve disagreement between the Houses.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
A Constitutional Amendment Bill can originate in either House. Presidential recommendation is not required for introduction, and Article 368 provides no mechanism for a joint sitting in case the Houses disagree.
Elimination clue: Do not automatically apply the procedure of ordinary legislation to constitutional amendments.
ECONOMY
Q3. Which of the following developments, other things remaining unchanged, can directly increase the money multiplier?
1. A decline in the currency-deposit ratio of the public
2. A decline in the reserve-deposit ratio of banks
3. A rise in the proportion of deposits that banks hold as excess reserves
Correct Answer: D. 1 and 2 only
A lower public preference for cash leaves more money within the banking system. A lower reserve-deposit ratio also permits greater deposit creation. Higher excess reserves reduce the multiplier.
Elimination clue: Money held idle as currency or excess reserves weakens deposit multiplication.
ECONOMY
Q4. Consider the following:
1. Increase in household expenditure on domestically produced services
2. Purchase of an existing house from another household
3. Construction of a new factory
4. Increase in unsold finished goods held as inventories
How many of the above can enter the calculation of GDP for the current period?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
Current services, new factory construction and inventory accumulation represent current production. Sale of an existing house transfers an already-produced asset.
Elimination clue: GDP measures current production, not every monetary transaction.
GEOGRAPHY
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding jet streams:
1. They are relatively narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere.
2. Their position can shift seasonally.
3. The subtropical westerly jet and tropical easterly jet are relevant to understanding the Indian monsoon system.
4. Jet streams occur only in the Northern Hemisphere.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. Only three
The first three statements are correct. Jet streams occur in both hemispheres. Their seasonal migration is important for weather and monsoon circulation.
Elimination clue: A major global atmospheric phenomenon being restricted to one hemisphere should look suspicious.
GEOGRAPHY • MAP
Q6. Consider the following pairs:
1. Lake Tanganyika — Tanzania and Democratic Republic of the Congo
2. Aral Sea — Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan
3. Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan and Mongolia
4. Lake Malawi — Malawi, Mozambique and Tanzania
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Mongolia does not border the Caspian Sea. Its littoral states include Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and Azerbaijan.
Elimination clue: Mongolia is separated geographically from the Caspian basin.
ENVIRONMENT
Q7. With reference to coral bleaching, consider the following statements:
1. Prolonged thermal stress can cause corals to expel their symbiotic algae.
2. A bleached coral is necessarily dead immediately after bleaching.
3. Ocean acidification can make calcification more difficult for reef-building corals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only
Heat stress can disrupt coral-algae symbiosis and cause bleaching. Bleached corals remain alive initially and may recover. Ocean acidification can hinder reef calcification.
Elimination clue: Bleaching indicates severe stress, not automatic instantaneous death.
ENVIRONMENT
Q8. Consider the following statements about ecological pyramids:
1. A pyramid of energy is always upright.
2. A pyramid of biomass can be inverted in some aquatic ecosystems.
3. A pyramid of numbers may be inverted in certain ecosystems.
4. Energy available generally decreases at successive trophic levels.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D. All four
The energy pyramid is always upright because energy decreases at successive trophic levels. Biomass pyramids may be inverted in aquatic ecosystems, while number pyramids can also be inverted in certain ecological situations.
Elimination clue: Energy is the ecological pyramid that cannot be inverted.
AGRICULTURE
Q9. With reference to millets, consider the following statements:
1. Several millet crops can tolerate relatively dry conditions.
2. All millet species require standing water during most of their growth period.
3. Millets can contribute to crop diversification in rain-fed farming systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Many millets are adapted to comparatively dry environments and are useful for diversification in rain-fed agriculture. They do not require standing water throughout most of their growth period.
Elimination clue: Millet + drought tolerance is the key association.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q10. With reference to nuclear fusion, consider the following statements:
1. Fusion involves combining relatively light nuclei to form heavier nuclei.
2. The Sun generates much of its energy through nuclear fusion.
3. Commercial fusion power plants presently supply a substantial share of global electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Fusion powers stars by combining light nuclei and releasing energy. Controlled fusion remains an active research field; commercial fusion power is not currently a substantial source of global electricity.
Elimination clue: Experimental breakthroughs are not equivalent to commercial grid-scale deployment.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding DNA and RNA:
1. DNA ordinarily contains thymine whereas RNA ordinarily contains uracil.
2. RNA can perform catalytic functions in some biological systems.
3. Every RNA molecule in a cell functions only as a messenger carrying information from DNA to ribosomes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
RNA includes many functional classes beyond messenger RNA. Some RNA molecules possess catalytic activity and are known as ribozymes.
Elimination clue: Remember mRNA, tRNA, rRNA and regulatory RNAs.
MODERN HISTORY
Q12. Consider the following pairs:
1. Servants of India Society — Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. Abhinav Bharat — V. D. Savarkar
3. Hindustan Republican Association — Sachindra Nath Sanyal
4. Indian Association — Bal Gangadhar Tilak
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: C. Only three
The first three associations are correct. The Indian Association was principally associated with Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose.
Elimination clue: Indian Association → Surendranath Banerjea is the decisive association.
ART & CULTURE
Q13. Consider the following pairs:
1. Mohiniyattam — Kerala
2. Sattriya — Assam
3. Kuchipudi — Tamil Nadu
4. Manipuri — Manipur
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: B. Only three
Mohiniyattam is associated with Kerala, Sattriya with Assam and Manipuri with Manipur. Kuchipudi originated in present-day Andhra Pradesh.
Elimination clue: Kuchipudi → Andhra Pradesh.
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Q14. Consider the following pairs:
1. International Atomic Energy Agency — Vienna
2. International Maritime Organization — London
3. International Civil Aviation Organization — Montreal
4. World Trade Organization — Geneva
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: D. All four
IAEA is headquartered in Vienna, IMO in London, ICAO in Montreal and WTO in Geneva.
Elimination clue: Build city clusters: Vienna–IAEA, London–IMO, Montreal–ICAO, Geneva–WTO.
GOVERNANCE
Q15. With reference to the Right to Information framework in India, consider the following statements:
1. The right to information is subject to statutory exemptions.
2. Information relating to every intelligence and security organisation is absolutely exempt under all circumstances.
3. Certain exempt organisations are not protected from requests concerning allegations of corruption and human-rights violations in the manner provided by law.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
The RTI Act contains statutory exemptions and special treatment for specified intelligence and security organisations. However, the exclusion is not absolute for information concerning allegations of corruption and human-rights violations, subject to conditions prescribed by law.
Elimination clue: Words such as “absolutely” and “under all circumstances” often hide the trap.
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