UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 • Monthly Revision August 2026 Current Affairs Quiz – Top 100 MCQs 100 UPSC Prelims-Level Questions
Economy • Environment • Science & Space • IR & Defence • Society • Agriculture • Culture
Current Affairs + Static Linkages + Explanations + Official Sources
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How to use: Select an option, then tap Show Answer . Your score is counted only once per question. The set prioritises UPSC-relevant August 2026 developments and links them with static concepts for elimination-based revision.
Section 1: Economy & Governance (1–20)
Q1 • Economy
With reference to India’s Q1 (April–June) FY 2026-27 GDP estimates released on 31 August 2026, consider the following statements:
Real GDP growth was 7.8%. Nominal GDP growth was 10.3%. The estimates were presented at constant prices with 2022-23 as the base year. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 MoSPI reported 7.8% real GDP growth and 10.3% nominal GDP growth for Q1 FY 2026-27. The updated estimates use 2022-23 as the reference/base year for constant-price calculations.
Q2 • Economy
Consider the following statements about GDP concepts:
Real GDP is measured at constant prices. Nominal GDP is measured at current prices. A rise in nominal GDP necessarily implies an equal rise in real output. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1 and 2 only Real GDP removes the effect of price changes by using constant prices, while nominal GDP uses current prices. Nominal GDP can rise because of higher prices, higher output, or both.
Q3 • Industry
With reference to the July 2026 Index of Industrial Production (IIP), consider the following statements:
IIP recorded 6.7% year-on-year growth. Manufacturing recorded 7.3% growth. Electricity & Gas Supply recorded 8.7% growth. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The July 2026 IIP release reported 6.7% overall growth, supported by 7.3% manufacturing growth and 8.7% growth in electricity and gas supply.
Q4 • Industry
Consider the following statements regarding the current IIP framework:
The base year is 2022-23. The index covers mining, manufacturing and electricity/gas-supply related industrial activity. IIP is an index of retail price inflation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1 and 2 only IIP is a volume/output indicator of industrial production, not an inflation index. The current series uses 2022-23 as base year.
Q5 • Labour
According to the PLFS Monthly Bulletin for July 2026, consider the following statements:
Overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above rose to 55.4%. Female LFPR rose to 34.4%. Overall unemployment rate declined to 5.1%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The July 2026 PLFS bulletin showed improvement in labour-force participation and work participation, alongside a decline in the unemployment rate to 5.1%.
Q6 • Labour
Match the labour-market indicators with their meaning:
LFPR — persons in the labour force as a proportion of the population. WPR — employed persons as a proportion of the population. UR — unemployed persons as a proportion of the labour force. How many of the above are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. All three
C. Only two
D. None
Show Answer
Answer: B. All three All three are standard PLFS concepts: LFPR measures participation, WPR measures employment relative to population, and UR measures unemployment relative to the labour force.
Q7 • Trade
With reference to India’s trade data for July 2026 released in August, consider the following statements:
Total exports of merchandise and services were estimated at US$80.14 billion. Total imports were estimated at US$95.16 billion. Merchandise exports were US$44.24 billion. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The Commerce Ministry estimated combined exports at US$80.14 billion and imports at US$95.16 billion in July 2026; merchandise exports were US$44.24 billion.
Q8 • Trade
Consider the following statements about trade statistics:
A merchandise trade deficit occurs when merchandise imports exceed merchandise exports. Services trade can partly offset a merchandise trade deficit. A trade deficit automatically means a country’s GDP must contract. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1 and 2 only A trade deficit is an external-sector accounting outcome; it does not mechanically imply GDP contraction. Services exports can offset part of a merchandise deficit in the overall trade balance.
Q9 • Digital Economy
With reference to UPI completing ten years in August 2026, consider the following statements:
UPI was launched on 25 August 2016 by NPCI. It operates under the regulatory oversight of the RBI. By FY 2025-26, 703 banks were live on UPI. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The government’s ten-year review stated that UPI was launched by NPCI on 25 August 2016 under RBI oversight, and 703 banks were live on UPI in FY 2025-26.
Q10 • Digital Economy
Which of the following correctly reflects the scale of UPI in FY 2025-26?
Annual transaction volume exceeded 24,000 crore. Annual transaction value was around ₹314 lakh crore. UPI was operational in 11 countries. Select the correct answer:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 The official ten-year review reported over 24,162 crore transactions worth around ₹314 lakh crore in FY 2025-26 and stated that UPI was operational in 11 countries.
Q11 • Digital Payments
Regarding the Government’s August 2026 clarification on UPI charges, consider the following statements:
Consumers making UPI payments will not face transaction charges. Person-to-person UPI transactions will continue to be free. Any future MDR, if introduced, is envisaged only for a limited set of merchant transactions above a threshold. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The clarification stated that users and P2P transactions would remain free; any future nominal MDR would apply only to a limited subset of merchant transactions above a threshold.
Q12 • Capital Markets
SEBI introduced an “IT Resilience Index” in August 2026 primarily for which category?
A. Insurance intermediaries
B. All individual mutual-fund investors
C. Scheduled commercial banks
D. Market Infrastructure Institutions
Show Answer
Answer: D. Market Infrastructure Institutions SEBI’s 24 August circular introduced an IT Resilience Index for Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs), such as stock exchanges, clearing corporations and depositories.
Q13 • Capital Markets
Which of the following was an August 2026 SEBI cyber-governance measure?
A. Alignment of SEBI’s Cyber Incident Reporting Portal with the FIRE format
B. Creation of a new monetary-policy committee
C. Launch of a sovereign wealth fund
D. Replacement of KYC with Aadhaar-only onboarding
Show Answer
Answer: A. Alignment of SEBI’s Cyber Incident Reporting Portal with the FIRE format SEBI issued a circular on 24 August 2026 aligning its Cyber Incident Reporting Portal with the FIRE format.
Q14 • Capital Markets
Consider the following August 2026 SEBI measures:
Acceptance of digitally signed Power of Attorney from FPIs. Enabling KRAs to share information with entities regulated by IFSCA. Abolition of all KYC requirements for FPIs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1 and 2 only SEBI issued measures on digitally signed PoA for FPIs and KRA information sharing with IFSCA-regulated entities. It did not abolish KYC requirements.
Q15 • Employment
With reference to the National Career Service (NCS) Portal, consider the following statements as reported in August 2026:
More than 6.64 crore jobseekers had registered since inception. More than 10.05 crore vacancies had been mobilised since inception. About 17.68 lakh active vacancies were available as of 15 July 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The Labour Ministry reported all three figures and described NCS as a one-stop platform for employment and career services.
Q16 • Employment
The NCS Portal is integrated with which of the following?
e-Shram Skill India Digital Hub EPFO and ESIC DigiLocker Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four The official NCS update listed integrations with e-Shram, Skill India Digital Hub, EPFO, ESIC, DigiLocker and several other public platforms.
Q17 • Social Security
With reference to the Employees’ Enrolment Campaign (EEC) 2026, consider the following statements:
It is a one-time opportunity to enrol eligible employees who were left outside EPF coverage. It covers eligible omissions from 1 April 2009 to 31 March 2026. The campaign remains open up to 31 October 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 EEC 2026 was designed to regularise past EPF enrolment gaps for eligible employees and remains open through 31 October 2026.
Q18 • Economy
Consider the following pairs:
GDP — overall value of final goods and services produced. IIP — high-frequency indicator of industrial output. PLFS — labour-market indicators such as LFPR, WPR and unemployment. How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. All three
C. Only two
D. None
Show Answer
Answer: B. All three GDP, IIP and PLFS measure different dimensions of the economy: aggregate output, industrial production and labour-market conditions respectively.
Q19 • BRICS & Trade
With reference to the 16th BRICS Trade Ministers’ Meeting held in Jaipur in August 2026, consider the following statements:
India hosted the meeting under its BRICS Chairship 2026. The Jaipur Consensus and Guiding Principles for MSME credit were agreed. The meeting rejected Special and Differential Treatment for developing countries in the WTO system. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1 and 2 only The Jaipur meeting supported MSME trade-finance access and reaffirmed India’s interest in preserving Special and Differential Treatment for developing countries.
Q20 • BRICS & Industry
Regarding the 10th BRICS Industry Ministers’ Meeting in Jaipur, consider the following statements:
It operated under the BRICS Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR). A framework/action plan for cooperation in the photovoltaic industry was adopted. India proposed a BRICS Incubator Network and Startup Innovation Fund. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 The meeting advanced industrial cooperation under PartNIR, including MSMEs, photovoltaics, startups and logistics; India also proposed new startup cooperation mechanisms.
Section 2: Environment, Energy & Geography (21–40)
Q21 • Wetlands
With reference to Glaw Lake, which was in news in August 2026, consider the following statements:
It became Arunachal Pradesh’s first Ramsar Site. Its designation took India’s Ramsar Site tally to 101. It is located in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only Glaw Lake is in Arunachal Pradesh and became the State’s first Ramsar Site, taking India’s total to 101.
Q22 • Wetlands
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention:
It was adopted in Ramsar, Iran. It promotes conservation and wise use of wetlands. It is a protocol under the UNFCCC. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1 and 2 only The Ramsar Convention is an independent intergovernmental treaty on wetlands, adopted in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. It is not a protocol under the UNFCCC.
Q23 • Wetlands
Which of the following statements about a Ramsar designation is most accurate?
A. It transfers ownership of the wetland to the Ramsar Secretariat
B. It automatically converts the wetland into a national park
C. It recognises a wetland of international importance and promotes its wise use
D. It prohibits all human activity in the wetland
Show Answer
Answer: C. It recognises a wetland of international importance and promotes its wise use Ramsar designation recognises international wetland importance and supports conservation and wise use; it does not transfer ownership or automatically impose a national-park status.
Q24 • Wetlands
Wetlands are important for which of the following ecosystem functions?
Flood moderation Groundwater recharge in suitable settings Habitat for biodiversity Carbon storage Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four Wetlands can support flood regulation, hydrological recharge, biodiversity and carbon storage, although the relative importance varies by wetland type.
Q25 • Energy
India crossed which milestone in non-fossil-fuel-based installed electricity-generation capacity as of 31 July 2026?
A. 300 GW
B. 250 GW
C. 200 GW
D. 400 GW
Show Answer
Answer: A. 300 GW India’s non-fossil installed capacity reached 300.50 GW, crossing the 300 GW milestone.
Q26 • Energy
Consider the following installed non-fossil capacity figures reported as of 31 July 2026:
Solar — 164.59 GW Wind — 58.14 GW Hydro — 57.24 GW Nuclear — 8.78 GW How many of the above are correct?
A. Only one
B. All four
C. Only three
D. Only two
Show Answer
Answer: B. All four All four figures were part of the official 300.50 GW non-fossil capacity breakdown.
Q27 • Energy
India’s stated 2030 non-fossil electricity-capacity target referred to in the August 2026 update is:
A. 300 GW
B. 400 GW
C. 500 GW
D. 750 GW
Show Answer
Answer: C. 500 GW The August update described the 300 GW milestone as more than 60% of the 500 GW non-fossil capacity target for 2030.
Q28 • Energy
For the purpose of India’s non-fossil installed-capacity tally, which of the following are included?
Solar Wind Hydropower Nuclear power Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 The official non-fossil total includes renewable sources, hydropower and nuclear power.
Q29 • Bioenergy
With reference to the GOBARdhan National Circular Bioenergy Scheme approved in August 2026, consider the following statements:
Total outlay is ₹23,731 crore. It is to be implemented from FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36. It is administered by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 All three are features of the approved unified CBG scheme.
Q30 • Bioenergy
The notified CBG obligation trajectory under GOBARdhan is correctly represented by which option?
A. 2% in 2026-27, 3% in 2027-28 and 4% thereafter
B. 3% in 2026-27, 4% in 2027-28 and 5% from 2028-29
C. 5% from 2026-27 with no transition
D. 10% in all years
Show Answer
Answer: B. 3% in 2026-27, 4% in 2027-28 and 5% from 2028-29 The obligation trajectory is 3% in FY 2026-27, 4% in FY 2027-28 and 5% from FY 2028-29 onwards for the relevant CNG transport and domestic PNG segments.
Q31 • Bioenergy
Consider the following GOBARdhan provisions:
Administered CBG price of ₹2,110 per MMBTU. Capital assistance up to ₹2 crore per TPD of installed CBG capacity for eligible greenfield projects. Credit-guarantee support for eligible MSME-based CBG projects. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The scheme combines stable pricing, capital support and credit guarantees to improve project viability.
Q32 • Bioenergy
Which of the following can serve as feedstock for Compressed Biogas under the GOBARdhan framework?
Agricultural residue Cattle dung Press mud Municipal organic waste Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four The scheme explicitly identifies agricultural residue, cattle dung, press mud, municipal organic waste and other biomass resources as potential feedstocks.
Q33 • Critical Minerals
The 8th tranche of critical and strategic mineral block auctions highlighted in August 2026 comprised:
A. 20 blocks: 3 Mining Leases and 17 Composite Licences
B. 10 blocks: 5 Mining Leases and 5 Composite Licences
C. 20 blocks: all Mining Leases
D. 30 blocks: all Composite Licences
Show Answer
Answer: A. 20 blocks: 3 Mining Leases and 17 Composite Licences The 8th tranche comprised 20 blocks, including 3 Mining Lease blocks and 17 Composite Licence blocks.
Q34 • Critical Minerals
Which of the following were among the minerals represented in the 8th tranche?
Graphite Rare Earth Elements Gallium Tungsten Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 The tranche covered graphite, REEs, rare metals, vanadium, gallium, titanium, molybdenum, tungsten, potash, phosphorite and glauconite.
Q35 • Mining
Which statement best describes a Composite Licence in India’s mineral regime?
A. It is identical to an environmental clearance
B. It is only a permit for transporting ore
C. It combines prospecting/exploration rights with a pathway to mining lease subject to conditions
D. It permits mining without exploration or statutory approvals
Show Answer
Answer: C. It combines prospecting/exploration rights with a pathway to mining lease subject to conditions A Composite Licence is designed to combine prospecting/exploration with a subsequent mining right subject to the statutory framework; it is not a substitute for other approvals.
Q36 • Critical Minerals
Critical minerals are strategically important because they are widely used in which of the following?
Clean-energy technologies Electronics and semiconductors Defence and aerospace systems Advanced manufacturing Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four Critical minerals underpin clean energy, electronics, defence and advanced manufacturing, making supply-chain resilience strategically important.
Q37 • Agriculture
With reference to sustainable agriculture measures reported in August 2026, consider the following statements:
About 26.18 crore Soil Health Cards had been generated. The Soil Health & Fertility Scheme promotes Integrated Nutrient Management. Agriculture is constitutionally a State subject. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 All three points were highlighted in the government’s August update on sustainable agriculture.
Q38 • Agriculture
“Per Drop More Crop” is most directly associated with:
A. Marine fisheries
B. Micro-irrigation and farm-level water-use efficiency
C. Crop insurance settlement
D. Minimum Support Price procurement
Show Answer
Answer: B. Micro-irrigation and farm-level water-use efficiency Per Drop More Crop promotes micro-irrigation such as drip and sprinkler systems to improve farm-level water-use efficiency.
Q39 • Agriculture
Which of the following were explicitly highlighted as sustainable agricultural approaches in the August 2026 government update?
Conservation agriculture Agroforestry Natural and organic farming Integrated farming systems Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All four
D. Only three
Show Answer
Answer: C. All four The update highlighted balanced nutrients, water efficiency, conservation agriculture, integrated farming, agroforestry and natural/organic farming.
Q40 • Biodiversity
The August 2026 Parliamentary Consultative Committee discussion on human–wildlife conflict emphasised which broad approach?
A. Only monetary compensation after incidents
B. Complete removal of wildlife from human-use landscapes
C. Only ex-situ conservation
D. Technology, community participation and coordinated national action
Show Answer
Answer: D. Technology, community participation and coordinated national action The meeting focused on strengthening prevention and mitigation through technology, community participation and coordinated action, rather than relying on a single post-conflict response.
Section 3: Science, Technology & Space (41–60)
Q41 • Artificial Intelligence
With reference to the IndiaAI Mission, consider the following statements:
It was approved on 7 March 2024. Its total outlay is ₹10,371.92 crore over five years. It aims to build an inclusive AI ecosystem aligned with India’s development goals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The August 2026 MeitY update reiterated the mission’s approval date, five-year outlay and broad objective.
Q42 • Artificial Intelligence
Regarding indigenous foundation models supported under IndiaAI, consider the following statements:
20 proposals had been identified for support. They comprised 12 Large Multimodal Models and 8 Small Language Models. All intellectual property is mandatorily transferred to the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1 and 2 only Twenty proposals were identified—12 large multimodal and 8 small language models. The update states that intellectual property is retained by the applicants.
Q43 • AI Compute
Consider the following IndiaAI compute-related facts reported in August 2026:
15 Compute Service Providers had been empanelled. 237 projects had been approved for subsidised compute support. 93.18 lakh GPU hours had been sanctioned. A roughly 1.1-EFLOPS system was planned at NIC Shastri Park, Delhi. How many are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All four
D. Only three
Show Answer
Answer: C. All four All four figures were included in MeitY’s sovereign AI infrastructure update.
Q44 • Responsible AI
The “Safe & Trusted AI” projects supported under IndiaAI include work on which of the following?
Bias mitigation Machine unlearning Privacy-preserving AI Algorithm auditing and explainability Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four The August update listed all these areas among the 13 selected Safe & Trusted AI projects.
Q45 • Cyber-Physical Systems
With reference to the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), consider the following statements:
It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology. Its approved outlay is ₹3,660 crore. 25 Technology Innovation Hubs have been established. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The August 2026 technology update reported all three features of NM-ICPS.
Q46 • Semiconductors
Consider the following statements regarding India’s semiconductor ecosystem as reported in August 2026:
12 manufacturing projects had been approved under the Semicon India Programme. Total committed investment was about ₹1.64 lakh crore. Semicon 2.0 had an outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 The government update cited 12 approved projects with ₹1.64 lakh crore committed investment and the newly approved Semicon 2.0 outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore.
Q47 • Space Economy
Which of the following measures were highlighted for supporting India’s private space ecosystem?
₹1,000 crore Venture Capital Fund ₹500 crore Technology Adoption Fund Liberalised FDI policy for the space sector Access for non-government entities to ISRO facilities Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All four
D. Only three
Show Answer
Answer: C. All four All four were listed as measures to support production, manufacturing and commercialisation in the space sector.
Q48 • Space Economy
As reported in August 2026, consider the following statements:
Around 440 space-technology startups were registered on the DPIIT Startup India Portal. IN-SPACe had granted 113 authorisations to 52 non-government entities. NSIL had signed 118 technology-transfer agreements covering 83 ISRO/DoS technologies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 These figures were reported in the Parliament update on India’s space-startup ecosystem.
Q49 • Space Institutions
Which of the following best distinguishes IN-SPACe and NSIL?
A. IN-SPACe facilitates/authorises non-government space activity, while NSIL commercialises space products/services and facilitates technology transfer
B. IN-SPACe conducts monetary policy while NSIL regulates stock exchanges
C. Both are military commands
D. NSIL is the regulator of telecom spectrum
Show Answer
Answer: A. IN-SPACe facilitates/authorises non-government space activity, while NSIL commercialises space products/services and facilitates technology transfer IN-SPACe is the interface/authorisation body for private space participation, whereas NSIL is the commercial arm for space products, services and technology transfer.
Q50 • Space Applications
Space-based agricultural applications reported under Space Vision 2047 include which of the following?
Crop-sown and harvest-area mapping Crop-yield estimation Insurance-unit yield estimation supporting PMFBY Jute surveillance in major jute-growing States Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. All four
C. Only three
D. Only two
Show Answer
Answer: B. All four The August 2026 Space Vision update listed all four applications.
Q51 • Disaster Management
Which hazards were listed for near-real-time satellite monitoring under India’s space-based disaster-management applications?
Floods and cyclones Landslides and forest fires GLOFs Droughts Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All four
D. Only three
Show Answer
Answer: C. All four ISRO/DoS uses Earth-observation data for near-real-time monitoring of these and other natural hazards, with products disseminated through platforms including Bhuvan and NDEM.
Q52 • Earth Observation
Consider the following pairs:
EOS-06 — Ocean Colour Monitor-3 and Scatterometer products INSAT-3DS — cloud products NICES — climate and environment information dissemination How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. None
D. All three
Show Answer
Answer: D. All three All three pairings were described in the Space Vision 2047 update on climate monitoring.
Q53 • Earth Observation
Under Indian Space Policy 2023, the August 2026 Space Vision update stated that Earth-observation data with a ground sampling distance coarser than 5 metres are:
A. Open and free to all users
B. Available only to the armed forces
C. Prohibited for academic use
D. Available only through foreign vendors
Show Answer
Answer: A. Open and free to all users The update stated that Indian EO data coarser than 5 m GSD are open and free to all users; finer-than-5 m data are free for government users and available at fair price to non-government users.
Q54 • Navigation
With reference to NavIC’s future roadmap, consider the following statements:
It is intended as a primary positioning, navigation and timing service for multiple sectors. NavIC-based Precise Point Positioning and Real-Time Kinematics receiver technologies are planned. Integration with 5G/6G technologies is envisaged. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 The Space Vision 2047 roadmap includes high-accuracy NavIC applications and integration into emerging telecom standards.
Q55 • Space Missions
NISAR is best described as:
A. A lunar sample-return mission
B. India’s first X-ray polarimetry mission
C. A joint NASA–ISRO dual-frequency L- and S-band radar Earth-observation satellite
D. A navigation constellation satellite
Show Answer
Answer: C. A joint NASA–ISRO dual-frequency L- and S-band radar Earth-observation satellite NISAR is the NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar mission using L- and S-band radar for Earth observation.
Q56 • Space Missions
Consider the following pairs:
Aditya-L1 — solar observatory XPoSat — X-ray polarimetry SPADEX — space docking/undocking demonstration How many pairs are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. None
D. All three
Show Answer
Answer: D. All three All three are correctly matched. SPADEX made India the fourth country to demonstrate docking technology in space.
Q57 • Lunar Science
Chandrayaan-3 demonstrated which of the following?
Soft landing near the Moon’s south polar region Rover navigation Detection of sulphur Lunar soil temperature measurements Select the correct answer:
A. All four
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. Only one
Show Answer
Answer: A. All four The August space-technology update listed all four Chandrayaan-3 achievements.
Q58 • Space Sustainability
With reference to the LVM3-M5 upper stage whose atmospheric re-entry was reported by ISRO in August 2026, consider the following statements:
It had launched CMS-03 into Geostationary Transfer Orbit in November 2025. The upper stage was passivated after spacecraft injection. IS4OM monitored its orbital decay and re-entry predictions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 ISRO reported all three aspects while documenting the stage’s re-entry on 30 July 2026.
Q59 • Space Sustainability
In space operations, “passivation” of a spent rocket stage is primarily intended to:
A. Convert it into an active satellite
B. Increase its radio transmission power
C. Reduce residual stored energy and the risk of accidental breakup
D. Raise its orbit indefinitely
Show Answer
Answer: C. Reduce residual stored energy and the risk of accidental breakup Passivation removes or safes residual propellant, pressure and electrical energy to reduce the risk of explosions and debris generation.
Q60 • Future Connectivity
The Space Vision 2047 roadmap mentions which emerging satellite-communication technologies?
Direct-to-Device connectivity Non-Terrestrial Networks using 5G/6G standards NB-IoT over satellite for machine-to-machine communication Operational Quantum Key Distribution systems Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four All four feature in the roadmap for future indigenous satellite communication and secure connectivity.
Section 4: International Relations, Defence & Infrastructure (61–80)
Q61 • Defence Exercises
With reference to Exercise MAITREE-XV (2026), consider the following statements:
It is an India–Thailand Army exercise. The 15th edition was scheduled at Surat Thani, Thailand, from 18–31 August 2026. The Indian contingent was represented primarily by 9 Gorkha Rifles. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 MAITREE-XV brought together Indian and Royal Thai Army contingents for joint training in Thailand.
Q62 • Defence Exercises
The principal training focus of MAITREE-XV was:
A. Carrier-based naval aviation
B. Counter-insurgency and counter-terrorist operations in jungle and semi-urban terrain
C. Strategic nuclear deterrence
D. Antarctic survival training
Show Answer
Answer: B. Counter-insurgency and counter-terrorist operations in jungle and semi-urban terrain The exercise focused on company-level joint counter-insurgency/counter-terrorist operations in jungle and semi-urban environments.
Q63 • Air Exercises
Consider the following statements about Exercise Pitch Black 2026:
It was hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force. It is a multinational air-combat exercise. The IAF deployed Rafale aircraft, supported by C-17 and IL-78 aircraft. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 Pitch Black is the RAAF’s premier biennial multinational air-combat exercise; the IAF deployed Rafale fighters with C-17 and IL-78 support.
Q64 • Air Exercises
Exercise Udara Shakti 2026 was conducted by the Indian Air Force with the air force of:
A. Oman
B. Thailand
C. France
D. Malaysia
Show Answer
Answer: D. Malaysia Udara Shakti 2026 was an India–Malaysia bilateral air exercise involving the Royal Malaysian Air Force.
Q65 • Naval Cooperation
The 8th India–US Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal Exercise in August 2026 included cooperation on which of the following?
IED threats and render-safe procedures Mine neutralisation Unmanned underwater systems Wreck location and salvage Select the correct answer:
A. All four
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. Only one
Show Answer
Answer: A. All four All four areas featured in the EOD and diving exchanges conducted at Southern Naval Command, Kochi.
Q66 • BRICS
With reference to the BRICS Youth and Sports Ministers’ meetings held in August 2026, consider the following statements:
They were hosted in Visakhapatnam. Ministers/heads of delegation from 11 BRICS member countries were expected. They were held under India’s BRICS Chairship 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 India hosted the youth and sports ministerial engagements in Visakhapatnam under its 2026 BRICS chairship.
Q67 • BRICS & Digital
The 12th BRICS Communications Ministers’ Meeting in Pune used the ICT-track theme:
A. Security and Growth for All in the Region
B. One Earth, One Family, One Future
C. Innovate, Cooperate and Transform (ICT) for a Resilient Future
D. Reform, Perform and Transform Trade
Show Answer
Answer: C. Innovate, Cooperate and Transform (ICT) for a Resilient Future The Pune meeting’s ICT-track theme was “Innovate, Cooperate and Transform (ICT) for a Resilient Future”.
Q68 • BRICS
India’s BRICS Chairship 2026 was guided by the theme “Building for”:
Resilience Innovation Cooperation Sustainability Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 The acronym-like theme covered Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.
Q69 • Maritime Governance
With reference to E-Samudra launched in August 2026, consider the following statements:
It is a comprehensive digital platform integrating services for seafarers, shipping companies, ports and maritime stakeholders. It provides for 24×7 grievance redressal. It was launched under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 E-Samudra is a single-window maritime-governance platform intended to improve service delivery and seafarer welfare.
Q70 • Infrastructure
With reference to the approved Guwahati–Tezpur corridor on NH-15, consider the following statements:
The project length is about 135.87 km. It is to be developed on BOT (Toll) mode. It includes a 4.9-km Emergency Landing Facility in the Tezpur Bypass. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 The Assam highway project includes all three features and was approved at a capital cost of ₹8,970.20 crore.
Q71 • Infrastructure
The Muzaffarpur–Sitamarhi–Sonbarsa NH-22 project approved in August 2026 is strategically significant because it:
A. Is a dedicated high-speed rail project
B. Connects Chennai directly to Colombo by road
C. Links Bihar’s highway network toward the India–Nepal border and is planned on Hybrid Annuity Mode
D. Is located entirely in Assam
Show Answer
Answer: C. Links Bihar’s highway network toward the India–Nepal border and is planned on Hybrid Annuity Mode The 82.578-km NH-22 upgrade in Bihar links toward the Nepal border at Sonbarsa and is to be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode.
Q72 • Infrastructure Finance
Consider the following statements about PPP road-development models:
BOT (Toll) places construction and operation responsibilities on the concessionaire with toll-based revenue. Hybrid Annuity Mode combines government support during construction with annuity-based payments for the remaining project cost. Both are identical to a fully budget-funded EPC contract. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1 and 2 only BOT-Toll and HAM are PPP structures and differ from a conventional fully government-funded EPC contract.
Q73 • Railways
The four railway multitracking projects approved on 19 August 2026 were expected to:
A. Add about 410 km to the existing network at an estimated cost of about ₹9,450 crore
B. Add 4,100 km at ₹945 crore
C. Be located only in Maharashtra
D. Be completed entirely in 2026-27
Show Answer
Answer: A. Add about 410 km to the existing network at an estimated cost of about ₹9,450 crore The CCEA approved four projects adding roughly 410 km across eight districts in West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, with an estimated cost of ₹9,450 crore.
Q74 • Railways
Consider the following railway project pairs approved in August 2026:
Kharagpur–Bhadrak (Ranital) 4th Line — 173 km Gummidipundi–Gudur 3rd & 4th Line — 90 km Cuttack–Paradeep 3rd & 4th Line — 72 km How many are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. All three
C. Only two
D. None
Show Answer
Answer: B. All three All three project-length pairs match the Cabinet approval.
Q75 • Infrastructure Planning
PM GatiShakti National Master Plan is best understood as:
A. A military command structure
B. A crop procurement scheme
C. An integrated geospatial platform for coordinated multimodal infrastructure planning
D. A direct cash transfer to exporters
Show Answer
Answer: C. An integrated geospatial platform for coordinated multimodal infrastructure planning PM GatiShakti supports coordinated planning across infrastructure ministries and logistics networks using integrated geospatial information.
Q76 • Internal Security
With reference to the first Mahila Commando Conversion Course at the NSG Training Academy, Manesar, consider the following statements:
Women personnel from State Police Forces and CAPFs are eligible participants. Training includes weapons, tactical intervention, hostage rescue and counter-terrorism. The course is a civilian university degree programme. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1 and 2 only The course provides specialised commando training to women personnel from State Police Forces and CAPFs; it is not an academic degree programme.
Q77 • Internal Security
Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Guard (NSG):
It is a specialised counter-terrorism force under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. It is distinct from the regular armed forces. Its training can include hostage-rescue and specialised intervention skills. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 NSG is a specialised federal contingency/counter-terrorism force under MHA and is distinct from the Army, Navy and Air Force.
Q78 • Multilateral Trade
At the BRICS Trade Ministers’ Meeting, India emphasised preserving Special and Differential Treatment in the multilateral trading system mainly for:
A. Only permanent members of the UN Security Council
B. Developing countries
C. Only landlocked developed countries
D. Private multinational corporations
Show Answer
Answer: B. Developing countries Special and Differential Treatment is a WTO concept providing flexibilities and differentiated treatment for developing and least-developed countries.
Q79 • BRICS Industry
“PartNIR”, seen in the context of BRICS industrial cooperation, stands for:
A. Programme for National Infrastructure Reserves
B. Partnership on Nuclear Inspection and Regulation
C. Partnership on New Industrial Revolution
D. Platform for New International Remittances
Show Answer
Answer: C. Partnership on New Industrial Revolution PartNIR is the BRICS Partnership on New Industrial Revolution, a framework for cooperation in future-oriented industrial development.
Q80 • Technology Diplomacy
The “Pax Silica” coalition mentioned in India’s August 2026 technology update is associated with:
A. A food-grain reserve arrangement
B. A new wetlands convention
C. A naval anti-piracy mission
D. Strengthening resilient global silicon/semiconductor supply chains
Show Answer
Answer: D. Strengthening resilient global silicon/semiconductor supply chains The government update described India’s participation in Pax Silica as cooperation to secure the global silicon supply chain and build a resilient technology ecosystem.
Section 5: Society, Agriculture & Culture (81–100)
Q81 • Rural Livelihoods
With reference to DAY-NRLM, consider the following statements as reported in August 2026:
About 10.08 crore women had been mobilised into around 92 lakh SHGs. The mission is implemented across the country except Delhi and Chandigarh. It focuses on organising rural households into self-help groups and supporting sustainable income growth. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The Rural Development Ministry reported these figures and described DAY-NRLM as a long-term institution-building and livelihood mission for rural households.
Q82 • Rural Livelihoods
Which of the following are core components of DAY-NRLM?
Social mobilisation and community institutions Financial inclusion Sustainable livelihoods Social inclusion and social development Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. All four
C. Only three
D. Only two
Show Answer
Answer: B. All four The mission invests in all four pillars to strengthen self-managed institutions, credit access, livelihoods and social development.
Q83 • Tribal Affairs
With reference to PM-JANMAN, consider the following statements:
It targets 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group communities. These communities are spread across 18 States and one Union Territory. The mission works through 11 interventions implemented by 9 line Ministries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 PM-JANMAN is a convergence mission for 75 PVTG communities across 18 States and one UT, implemented through 11 interventions by nine line ministries.
Q84 • Tribal Health
As of 30 June 2026, how many Mobile Medical Units had been operationalised through the Health Ministry under PM-JANMAN, according to the August update?
A. 231
B. 474
C. 1,500
D. 831
Show Answer
Answer: D. 831 The Tribal Affairs update reported 831 MMUs under PM-JANMAN; it separately cited 474 MMUs under Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan as of July 2026.
Q85 • Tribal Livelihoods
Consider the following typical Van Dhan Vikas Kendra structures:
PMJVM VDVK — 15 SHGs with 20 beneficiaries each. PM-JANMAN VDVK — 5 SHGs with 10 beneficiaries each. Both structures are designed only for large urban corporations. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only The VDVK model is a tribal livelihood and value-addition model; the reported typical group structures differ under PMJVM and PM-JANMAN.
Q86 • Tribal Livelihoods
With reference to VDVKs reported in August 2026, consider the following statements:
4,172 VDVKs covering 12.48 lakh beneficiaries had been sanctioned under PMJVM. 540 VDVKs covering about 0.46 lakh beneficiaries had been sanctioned under PM-JANMAN. 3,406 VDVKs were operational and had collectively sold value-added products worth about ₹174 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 All three figures were part of the August update on tribal entrepreneurship through Van Dhan Vikas Kendras.
Q87 • Women & Governance
Mission Shakti is structured around which two verticals?
A. Ujjwala and Udaan
B. Poshan and Vatsalya
C. Sambal and Samarthya
D. Sakhi and Saksham
Show Answer
Answer: C. Sambal and Samarthya Mission Shakti consists of Sambal for safety/security and Samarthya for women’s empowerment.
Q88 • Women & Governance
Which of the following are components under the Sambal vertical of Mission Shakti?
One Stop Centre Women Helpline Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Nari Adalat Select the correct answer:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Show Answer
Answer: D. All four The Ministry’s August update listed all four under the Sambal safety-and-security vertical.
Q89 • Nutrition
The Poshan Tracker is best described as:
A. An ICT-based governance tool to monitor nutrition and Anganwadi service delivery
B. A satellite launch-vehicle tracking system
C. A securities-market surveillance index
D. A port cargo-management application
Show Answer
Answer: A. An ICT-based governance tool to monitor nutrition and Anganwadi service delivery Poshan Tracker digitally supports monitoring of nutrition services, ECCE, beneficiary authentication and delivery through Anganwadi Centres and households.
Q90 • Nutrition
Mission Saksham Anganwadi & Poshan 2.0 primarily seeks to:
A. Regulate securities markets
B. Improve nutrition and child-development outcomes through a converged approach
C. Provide crop MSP procurement
D. Manage maritime shipping licences
Show Answer
Answer: B. Improve nutrition and child-development outcomes through a converged approach Poshan 2.0 consolidates and strengthens nutrition and early-childhood interventions, using convergence and digital monitoring.
Q91 • Health
With reference to Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY as highlighted in August 2026, consider the following statements:
It provides health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year to eligible families. All senior citizens aged 70 years and above are covered irrespective of income under the expanded framework. More than 45.5 crore Ayushman Cards had been issued by 12 August 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The August health factsheet reported all three features, including the expansion to all citizens aged 70 and above.
Q92 • Health
Consider the following statements about Ayushman Bharat Vay Vandana as reported in August 2026:
About 1.20 crore senior citizens had enrolled. Over 13.84 lakh treatments had been availed. The value of treatments was around ₹3,000 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 The August health factsheet cited these enrolment, treatment and expenditure figures for senior citizens.
Q93 • Primary Health
With reference to Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, consider the following statements:
More than 1.86 lakh were functional as of 12 August 2026. They provide a package of 12 free primary-health services. Cumulative footfall had exceeded 540 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 All three figures were given in the government’s August health-system factsheet.
Q94 • Health Infrastructure
PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) supports which of the following?
Rural health and wellness infrastructure Urban health and wellness centres Block Public Health Units Select the correct answer:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 PM-ABHIM strengthens public-health infrastructure including rural/urban facilities and block-level public-health units.
Q95 • Culture & Economy
With reference to National Handloom Day 2026, consider the following statements:
It was observed on 7 August. 2026 marked the 12th National Handloom Day. The sector was reported to have about 35.22 lakh weavers and allied workers, more than 72% of whom are women. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 The official National Handloom Day note reported the date, edition and workforce profile.
Q96 • Culture
The National Handloom Awards 2025 presented during the 2026 National Handloom Day celebrations comprised:
A. 50 awardees: all producer companies
B. 22 awardees: all Sant Kabir Awardees
C. 10 awardees: 5 each in two categories
D. 22 awardees: 3 Sant Kabir and 19 National Handloom Awardees
Show Answer
Answer: D. 22 awardees: 3 Sant Kabir and 19 National Handloom Awardees The Ministry announced 22 awardees—3 Sant Kabir Handloom Awardees and 19 National Handloom Awardees.
Q97 • GI & Handloom
With reference to the GI & Beyond 2.0 Summit held in August 2026, consider the following statements:
It showcased GI-tagged handloom and handicraft products. A Digital Handloom Atlas was launched. It was organised with the Handloom Export Promotion Council. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Show Answer
Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 The summit promoted GI products and market access, and launched the Digital Handloom Atlas in collaboration with HEPC.
Q98 • National Symbols
With reference to Har Ghar Tiranga 2026, consider the following statements:
The campaign was observed from 9 to 17 August 2026. The year marked 150 years of Vande Mataram. More than 8.24 crore Tiranga selfies were uploaded. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 The 2026 campaign combined mass Tiranga participation with the 150th-year commemoration of Vande Mataram.
Q99 • Modern History
Consider the following statements regarding Vande Mataram:
It was composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. It appeared in the novel Anandamath. It is recognised as India’s National Song, distinct from the National Anthem. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 Vande Mataram was composed by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, became associated with Anandamath, and is recognised as India’s National Song.
Q100 • Tribal Culture
With reference to the National Conclave on Tribal Languages & Museums held in Mysuru in August 2026, consider the following statements:
The Adi Vaani platform was upgraded with five new languages and an iOS application. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched an AI bot named “Jago”. An MoU was signed with the Central Institute of Indian Languages. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 The conclave combined tribal-language revitalisation with museum development, and included the Adi Vaani upgrade, Jago AI bot and an MoU with CIIL.
Monthly Revision Strategy 80+: Very strong monthly revision. 65–79: Good, revise incorrect topics. 50–64: Revisit explanations and static linkages. Below 50: Rework August current affairs topic-wise before attempting again.
Editorial note: Questions are framed from official/primary-source developments and standard UPSC static concepts. Numerical facts are tied to the cited August 2026 releases.
