UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice MCQs | Set 9 | UPSCJOURNAL

UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice – Set 9
15 UPSC-level MCQs designed around concepts, statements and elimination. Select the most appropriate option and check your answer.

Q1. With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The President can return a non-Money Bill for reconsideration by Parliament.
2. If Parliament passes the Bill again, the President is constitutionally bound to give assent.
3. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be returned by the President for reconsideration.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The President may return a non-Money Bill once for reconsideration. If Parliament passes it again, assent cannot be withheld. A Constitutional Amendment Bill is not subject to this ordinary reconsideration power.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:

1. It can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
2. Such a resolution requires a simple majority of members present and voting.
3. The resolution remains in force permanently once passed.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 only, but the resolution has a limited validity D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. The resolution normally operates for up to one year at a time.

Q3. Which of the following would generally increase the fiscal deficit of the government, assuming other variables remain unchanged?

A. Increase in capital expenditure financed through borrowing B. Increase in tax revenue without any increase in expenditure C. Reduction in revenue expenditure without any change in receipts D. Increase in non-debt capital receipts without any change in expenditure

Explanation: Fiscal deficit broadly represents total expenditure minus total receipts excluding debt receipts. Borrowing-financed capital expenditure adds to the financing requirement and, other things unchanged, increases the fiscal deficit.

Q4. With reference to the Balance of Payments, consider the following:

1. Export of software services can contribute to the current account.
2. Foreign Direct Investment received by India is recorded in the current account.
3. Remittances received from Indians working abroad are part of the current account.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Services exports and remittances are current-account items. FDI is recorded in the financial account, not the current account.

Q5. Ocean upwelling is important for marine ecosystems primarily because it:

A. brings warm surface water to deeper layers B. brings nutrient-rich deeper water toward the surface C. prevents phytoplankton growth by reducing nutrients D. permanently reduces ocean salinity

Explanation: Upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich water from deeper layers toward the surface. These nutrients support phytoplankton and can sustain highly productive marine food webs.

Q6. Consider the following factors:

1. Evaporation
2. Freezing of seawater
3. River discharge
4. Precipitation

Which of the above can influence the salinity of ocean water?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Evaporation generally raises salinity, while precipitation and river discharge dilute seawater. Freezing removes relatively fresh water as ice and leaves salts behind, increasing the salinity of surrounding water.

Q7. With reference to ecological succession, consider the following statements:

1. Primary succession begins in an area where soil is initially absent.
2. Secondary succession generally proceeds faster than primary succession.
3. Ecological succession always results in a completely stable ecosystem that never changes thereafter.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Primary succession begins on surfaces lacking developed soil. Secondary succession is usually faster because soil, nutrients and biological remnants may already be present. Ecosystems remain dynamic rather than permanently unchanged.

Q8. Which one of the following processes transfers carbon from the atmosphere into living biomass most directly?

A. Respiration B. Decomposition C. Combustion D. Photosynthesis

Explanation: Photosynthesis removes atmospheric carbon dioxide and incorporates carbon into organic compounds, thereby transferring atmospheric carbon into living biomass.

Q9. With reference to micro-irrigation, consider the following statements:

1. Drip irrigation can reduce water losses through evaporation and runoff.
2. Fertigation means applying fertilizers through irrigation water.
3. Drip irrigation is unsuitable for orchards because it cannot deliver water near the root zone.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Drip irrigation delivers water close to the crop root zone and can reduce evaporation, runoff and unnecessary wetting. Fertigation is the application of nutrients through irrigation water.

Q10. With reference to CRISPR-based gene editing, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used to make targeted changes in DNA sequences.
2. Guide RNA plays an important role in directing the gene-editing machinery.
3. CRISPR technology can modify only RNA and has no application involving DNA.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: CRISPR-based systems can be used for targeted genome editing. Guide RNA helps direct the editing machinery to the intended sequence. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

Q11. Consider the following statements about mRNA vaccines:

1. They provide cells with genetic instructions for producing a target antigen.
2. The mRNA itself becomes a permanent part of the recipient's nuclear DNA.
3. The resulting antigen can stimulate an immune response.

A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: mRNA vaccines provide temporary instructions for cells to produce an antigen. The antigen triggers an immune response. The mRNA does not become a permanent component of nuclear DNA.

Q12. In Buddhist philosophy, the concept of the “Middle Path” is most closely associated with:

A. rejection of ethical conduct in favour of meditation B. complete withdrawal from society C. exclusive dependence on ritual sacrifice D. avoidance of both extreme sensual indulgence and extreme self-mortification

Explanation: The Middle Path avoids the two extremes of excessive sensual indulgence and severe self-mortification. It is associated with the Buddha's teaching and the path leading towards liberation.

Q13. With reference to Indian temple architecture, consider the following statements:

1. The Nagara style is traditionally associated with northern India.
2. The Dravida style is traditionally associated with southern India.
3. The distinctive curvilinear shikhara is a characteristic feature of the Dravida style.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Nagara architecture is broadly associated with northern India and Dravida architecture with southern India. The curvilinear shikhara is associated primarily with Nagara temples, while Dravida temples characteristically have pyramidal vimanas.

Q14. With reference to the United Nations Security Council, consider the following statements:

1. The Security Council has five permanent members.
2. All permanent members possess veto power on substantive matters.
3. India is currently a permanent member of the Security Council.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The five permanent members are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States. They possess veto power on substantive matters. India is not a permanent member.

Q15. With reference to a Money Bill in India, consider the following statements:

1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

Explanation: A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the Speaker's certification. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend it; it can only recommend changes within the prescribed period.

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