UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice MCQs – 15 Questions | Set 11

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UPSCJournal • Prelims 2027 Practice

UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice – 15 UPSC Level MCQs

1 October 2026 • Original UPSC-Level Questions with Answers & Explanations

Moderate–Hard Static + Current Elimination Based GS Paper I
Your Practice Score 0 / 15
Practice Rule: Read carefully → eliminate improbable statements → select one option → check the answer → understand the trap.
Q1
Environment & Energy Current-linked
With reference to the Green Energy Corridor Phase-III approved in 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to strengthen Intra-State Transmission Systems.
2. It is intended to facilitate evacuation of up to 135 GW of renewable energy.
3. It provides for deployment of 50 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems.
4. Its transmission infrastructure is restricted exclusively to solar power projects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: C — 1, 2 and 3 only

GEC-III focuses on strengthening intra-State transmission infrastructure for renewable-energy evacuation and includes 50 GWh of battery storage. It is not restricted only to solar projects.

UPSC Trap: Renewable energy ≠ solar energy alone. Official Source: PIB – Green Energy Corridor Phase-III
Q2
Environment Current-linked
With reference to National Coastal Mission 2.0, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It is to be implemented till 2030-31.
3. It covers nine coastal States and four Union Territories.
4. One of its objectives is to strengthen coastal resilience and support the Blue Economy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D — All four

NCM 2.0 is a Central Sector Scheme with an approved outlay of ₹767 crore, to be implemented till 2030-31 across nine coastal States and four UTs.

Revision Link: Coastal ecology + disaster resilience + Blue Economy. Official Source: PIB – National Coastal Mission 2.0
Q3
Polity Current-linked
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution provides for a Union Public Service Commission under Article 315.
2. The conditions of service of the Chairman and members cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment.
3. The expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. The President may remove a UPSC member for misbehaviour without reference to the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 3 only

Articles 315–323 deal with Public Service Commissions. In a case of alleged misbehaviour, removal requires the constitutional procedure involving an inquiry by the Supreme Court.

Trap: Constitutional removal ≠ ordinary executive removal.
Q4
Polity
With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. An elected independent member may be disqualified if he joins a political party after election.
2. A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking his seat without attracting disqualification on that ground.
3. A merger exception requires not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.
4. Decisions of the Presiding Officer under the Tenth Schedule are completely immune from judicial review.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A — 1, 2 and 3 only

The Supreme Court has held that decisions of the Presiding Officer under the Tenth Schedule are subject to judicial review.

UPSC Trap: “Final decision” does not automatically mean “no judicial review”.
Q5
Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the Balance of Payments of India:
1. Merchandise exports and imports are recorded in the current account.
2. Foreign Direct Investment inflows are recorded in the capital/financial account.
3. Remittances received from Indians working abroad are treated as capital receipts.
4. A current-account deficit can coexist with an overall Balance of Payments surplus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4 only

Personal remittances are current transfers and therefore form part of the current account. Strong capital inflows can more than finance a current-account deficit.

Trap: Remittance ≠ capital flow.
Q6
Economy
With reference to monetary transmission, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in the policy repo rate can raise borrowing costs in the economy.
2. A reduction in CRR can potentially increase lendable resources of banks.
3. Open-market purchase of government securities by the RBI normally absorbs liquidity from the banking system.
4. Monetary-policy transmission may be affected by banks' funding costs and balance-sheet conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4 only

An RBI purchase of securities injects liquidity rather than absorbing it. Sale of securities is normally liquidity-absorbing.

Remember: RBI buys → money enters system; RBI sells → money leaves system.
Q7
Geography
Consider the following pairs:
1. Nathu La — Sikkim
2. Shipki La — Himachal Pradesh
3. Bomdi La — Arunachal Pradesh
4. Lipulekh — Uttarakhand
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: D — All four

All four Himalayan passes are correctly matched with their respective States.

Map Revision: Sikkim → Nathu La; HP → Shipki La; Arunachal → Bomdi La; Uttarakhand → Lipulekh.
Q8
Environment
With reference to biomagnification, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to increasing concentration of certain persistent substances at successive trophic levels.
2. Persistent fat-soluble pollutants are especially capable of undergoing biomagnification.
3. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation necessarily mean exactly the same ecological process.
4. Top predators may accumulate higher concentrations of some contaminants than primary consumers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4 only

Bioaccumulation is the build-up of a substance within an organism over time, while biomagnification describes increasing concentration across trophic levels.

Trap: Accumulation within an organism ≠ magnification through a food chain.
Q9
Agriculture
With reference to Minimum Support Prices in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices makes recommendations regarding MSPs.
2. MSP is legally guaranteed to every farmer for every crop cultivated in India.
3. Procurement at MSP and announcement of MSP are conceptually distinct.
4. Cost of production is among the factors considered while recommending MSPs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 3 and 4 only

MSP is announced for specified crops, but it is not a universal statutory guarantee that every unit of every crop will necessarily be purchased from every farmer.

Trap: Announcement of MSP ≠ assured procurement of all output.
Q10
Science & Technology
With reference to quantum computing, consider the following statements:
1. A qubit may exist in a superposition of basis states prior to measurement.
2. Quantum entanglement can create correlations not described by independent classical bits.
3. Quantum computers automatically outperform classical computers for every computational task.
4. Decoherence is an important challenge in maintaining useful quantum states.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4 only

Quantum advantage is problem-specific. Quantum computers are not universally faster than classical computers for all tasks.

Absolute words such as “every” and “automatically” are classic UPSC traps.
Q11
Biotechnology
Consider the following statements regarding mRNA-based vaccines:
1. They deliver messenger RNA encoding an antigen into host cells.
2. Host cellular machinery translates the delivered mRNA into protein.
3. Their functioning necessarily requires permanent integration of vaccine genetic material into the host genome.
4. The immune system can generate responses against the produced antigen.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4 only

mRNA functions mainly in the cytoplasm and does not need permanent integration into the host genome to produce the antigen.

UPSC Trap: mRNA delivery ≠ genome modification.
Q12
Ancient History
Consider the following pairs related to the Sangam Age:
1. Korkai — Pandya region
2. Puhar/Kaveripattinam — Chola region
3. Muziris — Chera region
4. Uraiyur — Chola region
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: D — All four

Korkai was associated with the Pandyas; Puhar and Uraiyur with the Cholas; and Muziris with the Chera region and overseas trade.

Map + dynasty association is a recurring UPSC pattern.
Q13
Art & Culture
With reference to Indian temple architecture, consider the following statements:
1. A curvilinear shikhara is commonly associated with the Nagara tradition.
2. A pyramidal vimana is characteristic of the Dravida tradition.
3. Gopurams are monumental entrance gateways particularly associated with South Indian temple complexes.
4. The Vesara tradition is generally discussed as showing features associated with both northern and southern traditions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D — All four

These are standard identifying features used to distinguish Nagara, Dravida and mixed/developmental temple traditions.

Do not confuse shikhara/vimana with gopuram.
Q14
International Relations
With reference to maritime zones under UNCLOS, consider the following statements:
1. The territorial sea may extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
2. The contiguous zone may extend up to 24 nautical miles from the baseline.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone may extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline.
4. A coastal State enjoys complete territorial sovereignty over the entire Exclusive Economic Zone in the same manner as over its land territory.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A — 1, 2 and 3 only

In the EEZ, the coastal State has sovereign rights for specified economic purposes and jurisdiction in certain areas; it does not exercise the same complete sovereignty that applies to land territory or territorial waters.

Sovereignty and sovereign rights are not identical legal concepts.
Q15
Environment
With reference to mangrove ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. Some mangrove species possess specialised aerial roots that assist gaseous exchange in waterlogged soils.
2. Vivipary is found in several mangrove species.
3. Mangroves can reduce coastal erosion and attenuate wave energy.
4. Mangroves occur only in freshwater environments and cannot tolerate salinity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B — 1, 2 and 3 only

Mangroves are adapted to saline or brackish coastal environments. Many show specialised roots, salt-management adaptations and viviparous germination.

Mangroves are halophytic coastal ecosystems, not freshwater-only vegetation.
UPSC Prelims 2027 Practice – 15/15 Read Carefully → Eliminate → Mark → Check → Analyse the Trap
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